Welcome to our series of practice questions for the RRB Technician Grade 3 exam! In this post, we’ve compiled the General Knowledge (GK) questions from the 29 December, 2024 Shift 1 exam. These questions are presented in a multiple-choice format to help you practice effectively.
Preparing with real shift-based GK questions is a great way to familiarize yourself with the exam pattern, boost your confidence, and improve your performance. Let’s get started!
Exam Overview
Before diving into the GK questions, it’s important to understand the structure of the RRB Technician Grade 3 exam. The exam typically includes multiple subjects, each with a specific marks allocation. Below is a table showing the subject-wise marks distribution:
| Subjects | No. of Questions | Maximum Marks |
|---|---|---|
| General Awareness | 10 | 10 |
| General Intelligence and Reasoning | 25 | 25 |
| Mathematics | 25 | 25 |
| General Science | 40 | 40 |
RRB Technician Grade 3 Paper: 29 December, 2024 Shift 1
- Duration: 90 minutes.
- Negative Marking: 1/3 marks deducted for wrong answers.
- Shift: 1 (9:00 AM - 10:30 AM)
Practice
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Q1: Which of the following methods is used for refining impure metals?
Electrolytic refining
Painting
Oiling
Galvanisation
Q2: If F1 force is required to accelerate an object of 5 kg mass at 10 m s⁻² and F2 force to accelerate an object of 10 kg mass at 12 m s⁻², then which of the following statements is true?
F1 > F2
F1 = F2
F2 > F1
F2 = -2 × F1
Q3: Convex mirrors are fitted on the sides of vehicles because they always give ______.
an erect and diminished image
a real image
a narrower field of the view
an erect and an enlarged image
Q4: Which of the following is NOT a property of a colloid?
Colloids cannot be separated by filtration.
Colloid is a homogeneous mixture.
Colloid is a heterogeneous mixture.
Particles of colloids do not settle down when left undisturbed.
Q5: A body of mass m and a body of mass 4m are dropped from the same height, the ratio of the time taken by the two bodies to reach the ground would be: (Air resistance is neglected)
4:1
1:1
1:2
1:4
Q6: What is the energy currency for most cellular processes?
NAD
DNA
ATP
RNA
Q7: Who among the following has been appointed as the chairperson of the Lokpal in February 2024?
Justice Ajay Manikrao Khanwilkar
Justice Manmohan
Justice Suresh Kumar Kait
Justice Rajiv Shakdher
Q8: All activities inside the cell and interactions of the cell with its environment are possible due to three important features observed in almost every cell. Which are the three features?
Mitochondria, nucleus and cytoplasm
Plasma membrane, nucleus and Golgi apparatus
Plasma membrane, nucleus and cytoplasm
Mitochondria, nucleus and Golgi apparatus
Q9: The kinetic energy of a moving body of mass ‘m’ and velocity ‘v’ is ______.
directly proportional to its velocity but inversely proportional to its mass
directly proportional to its mass but inversely proportional to its velocity
inversely proportional to its mass and square of its velocity
directly proportional to its mass and square of its velocity
Q10: Which of the following statements about the reaction of a non-metallic oxide with a base is/are correct?
Statement I: The reaction of non-metallic oxide with base produces salt and water.
Statement II: Non-metallic oxides are acidic in nature.
Statement I: The reaction of non-metallic oxide with base produces salt and water.
Statement II: Non-metallic oxides are acidic in nature.
Neither statement I nor II is correct.
Only statement I is correct.
Both statements I and II are correct.
Only statement II is correct.
Q11: Gastric glands present in the wall of the stomach do NOT release:
pepsin
saliva
hydrochloric acid
mucus
Q12: How much prize money was announced by the BCCI for the men’s T20 cricket World Cup 2024 winner team?
₹150 crore
₹125 crore
₹50 crore
₹100 crore
Q13: Which of the following is NOT a role played by NITI Aayog in the localisation of SDGs in India?
Preparing the National Indicator Framework (NIF)
Fostering competitive federalism among states and UTs
Benchmarking states based on SDG performance metrics
Serving as a platform for collaboration among states
Q14: If the focal length of a lens is −25 cm, the power of the lens will be:
+0.04 D
+4 D
−4 D
−0.04 D
Q15: Match the class of organic compounds (Column I) with the suffix used (Column II).
| (i) Ketone | (a) -al (-CHO) |
| (ii) Alkene | (b) -one (-C=O) |
| (iii) Aldehyde | (c) -ene (-C=C-) |
| (iv) Carboxylic acid | (d) -oic acid (-COOH) |
(i)-(c); (ii)-(d); (iii)-(b); (iv)-(a)
(i)-(b); (ii)-(c); (iii)-(a); (iv)-(d)
(i)-(c); (ii)-(b); (iii)-(a); (iv)-(d)
(i)-(b); (ii)-(c); (iii)-(d); (iv)-(a)
Q16: In an ecosystem, physical factors like temperature, rainfall, wind, soil and minerals are:
decomposers
abiotic components
living components
biotic components
Q17: Select the correct statement related to the characteristics of prokaryotic cell.
It has more than one chromosome.
It has a single chromosome.
Nuclear region is well defined and surrounded by nuclear membrane.
Membrane bound cell organelles are present.
Q18: Besides products of photosynthesis, which of the following substances are transported by the phloem in plants?
Only Sucrose
Only Water
Only Amino acids
Both amino acids and sucrose
Q19: A dentist usually uses:
a plane mirror
a convex mirror
a plano-convex mirror
a concave mirror
Q20: A porter lifts a luggage weighing 10 kg from the ground and puts it on his head 1 m above the ground. Then the work done by him on the luggage (g is acceleration due to gravity in SI unit) is ______.
10g J
18g J
20g J
15g J
Q21: The Union Finance Minister, on 9 November 2024, inaugurated Nari Shakti Branches of which of the following banks in Bengaluru, Chennai, Visakhapatnam, and Jaipur?
Bank of Baroda
State Bank of India
Canara Bank
Union Bank of India
Q22: Sodium or potassium salt of long chain carboxylic acid is known as which of the following?
Micelle
Both detergent and soap
Detergent
Soap
Q23: If the power of a lens is +1 Dioptre, then the focal length of the lens will be:
0.75 m
0.5 m
0.25 m
1 m
Q24: When a more reactive metal is placed in a salt solution containing a less reactive metal, it replaces the less reactive metal. This reaction is known as ______.
Displacement reaction
Combination reaction
Neutralisation reaction
Decomposition reaction
Q25: Which of the following statements is correct?
In sexual mode of reproduction, germ-cells from one individual have to join together.
At maturity, the rate of general body growth in humans begins to slow down.
At maturity, the rate of general body growth in humans begins to get faster.
At maturity, the reproductive tissue stops to mature in humans.
Q26: Protein digesting enzyme pepsin is secreted in the:
ileum
stomach
mouth
duodenum
Q27: In a circuit, suppose the three resistors having the values 5 Ω, 10 Ω, 20 Ω are connected in parallel; then equivalent resistance of the circuit will be ______.
35 Ω
20 Ω
\(\frac{40}{7}\) Ω
\(\frac{20}{7}\) Ω
Q28: Honey is produced by the honeybee. So, the honeybee is a ______.
secondary consumer
primary consumer
producer
Decomposer
Q29: Which of the following is NOT a sign of sexual maturity in girls?
Cracking of voice
Oily skin
Increase in breast size
Menstruation
Q30: In January 2024, what significant milestone did the Indian Air Force (IAF) achieve in terms of landing operations?
First deployment of the Garud Special Forces using a C-130J Super Hercules
First operation of a C-130J Super Hercules at the world's highest airstrip
First successful night landing at the Kargil airfield with a C-130J Super Hercules
First landing of a C-130J Super Hercules aircraft at Daulat Beg Oldie
Q31: If the mass of a football is 3 kg, then what would be its weight on the earth? (Given, g= 9.8 m s⁻²)
30.5 N
35 N
25 N
29.4 N
Q32: Which of the following is produced when acid reacts with metals?
Salt and hydrogen gas
Only Salt
Salt and water
Only Hydrogen gas
Q33: If an object is placed in front of a concave mirror at a distance of 20 cm and the image is formed on the same side at a distance of 40 cm, then the magnification of the mirror will be:
-0.4
+0.4
+2.0
-2.0
Q34: Which of the following products is NOT formed when electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of sodium chloride?
Hydrogen gas
Sodium hydroxide
Chlorine gas
Oxygen gas
Q35: Who among the following scientists was the first to use a glass prism to discover the spectrum of sunlight?
Sir Isaac Newton
Albert Einstein
Prof CV Raman
Archimedes
Q36: To promote the dialogue of traditions, national values and cultures, India participated in the BRICS Literature Forum 2024 in ______.
Nepal
Russia
Bhutan
China
Q37: The rigid outer covering present outside the plasma membrane in plants is called the:
cell envelope
selectively permeable membrane
cell wall
nuclear membrane
Q38: Which team of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) won the Vigyan Team award in 2024?
Chandrayaan-2 Team
XPoSat Team
Aditya-L1 Team
Chandrayaan-3 Team
Q39: Which of the following statements is true?
The weight of an object is the power with which it is attracted towards the earth.
The weight of an object is constant and does not change from place to place.
The mass of an object is constant and does not change from place to place.
The weight is equal to the product of velocity and acceleration due to gravity.
Q40: Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement I: Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan and C Rajagopalachari were the first recipients of the Bharat Ratna.
Statements II: Sachin Tendulkar was the first and only cricketer awarded with Bharat Ratna till 2024.
Statement I: Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan and C Rajagopalachari were the first recipients of the Bharat Ratna.
Statements II: Sachin Tendulkar was the first and only cricketer awarded with Bharat Ratna till 2024.
Statement I is incorrect, while statement II is correct.
Both statement I and statement II are correct.
Statement I is correct, while statement II is incorrect.
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
Q41: The upward and downward growth of a plant is due to which of the following tropisms?
Geotropism
Phototropism
Chemotropism
Hydrotropism
Q42: 24-carat gold is called ______.
impure gold
pure gold
spongy gold
wrought gold
Q43: Gas to liquid and liquid to solid conversion is:
solidification and condensation respectively
fusion and vaporisation respectively
condensation and solidification respectively
sublimation and fusion respectively
Q44: Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A) Zinc and lead are more reactive elements than copper.
B) Zinc and lead are less reactive elements than copper.
C) An iron nail become yellow in colour when it is dipped in the copper sulphate solutions.
A) Zinc and lead are more reactive elements than copper.
B) Zinc and lead are less reactive elements than copper.
C) An iron nail become yellow in colour when it is dipped in the copper sulphate solutions.
Only C
Only A and C
Only A and B
Only A
Q45: Carbon has the unique ability to form bonds with other atoms of carbon, giving rise to large molecules. This property is called ______.
Cyclisation
Polymerisation
Metallic bonding
Catenation
Q46: What is the process by which autotrophs take in substance from outside and in the presence of sunlight, convert them into stored forms of energy?
Circulation
Movement
Digestion
Photosynthesis
Q47: What was India's rank out of 127 countries in the 2024 Global Hunger Index released in October 2024?
97
111
105
99
Q48: Who among the following was appointed Indian men’s cricket team’s full time T20 international captain in July 2024?
Ravindra Jadeja
Shubman Gill
Suryakumar Yadav
Hardik Pandya
Q49: Which of the following metals reacts with cold water?
Aluminium
Zinc
Iron
Sodium
Q50: Different cell organelles such as mitochondria, ribosome, etc., together constitute the basic unit of life called the:
Organ
organ system
tissue
cell
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Why These Questions Matter
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Real Exam Feel: The questions are identical to those asked in 2024.
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