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RRB Technician Grade 3 GK Questions: 28 Dec, 2024 Shift 3 Practice Now!

Welcome to our series of practice questions for the RRB Technician Grade 3 exam! In this post, we’ve compiled the General Knowledge (GK) questions from the 28 December, 2024 Shift 3 exam. These questions are presented in a multiple-choice format to help you practice effectively.

Preparing with real shift-based GK questions is a great way to familiarize yourself with the exam pattern, boost your confidence, and improve your performance. Let’s get started!

RRB Technician Grade 3 GK Questions: 28 Dec, 2024 Shift 3 Practice Now!

Exam Overview

Before diving into the GK questions, it’s important to understand the structure of the RRB Technician Grade 3 exam. The exam typically includes multiple subjects, each with a specific marks allocation. Below is a table showing the subject-wise marks distribution:

Subjects No. of Questions Maximum Marks
General Awareness 10 10
General Intelligence and Reasoning 25 25
Mathematics 25 25
General Science 40 40

RRB Technician Grade 3 Paper: 28 December, 2024 Shift 3

  • Duration: 90 minutes.
  • Negative Marking: 1/3 marks deducted for wrong answers.
  • Shift: 3 (4:30 PM - 6:00 PM)
Practice Show All Answers
Q1: Cranial nerves arising from the brain and spinal nerves arising from the spinal cord together constitute the:
peripheral nervous system
central nervous system
autonomic nervous system
endocrine system

Q2: Which of the following metals is most ductile?
Sodium
Lithium
Lead
Gold

Q3: Which team won the Khelo India Para Games 2023 held in New Delhi in December 2023?
Gujarat
Uttar Pradesh
Haryana
Tamil Nadu

Q4: Which gas is primarily produced during the burning of coke?
Nitrogen dioxide
Carbon dioxide
Oxygen
Sulphur dioxide

Q5: Asexual reproduction does NOT involve the formation of ______.
buds
zygotes
spores
leaves

Q6: If a stone is thrown up, the value of acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ will be taken as ______.
infinite
negative
zero
positive

Q7: Which of the following has two ends: one which is hydrophilic and the other which is hydrophobic?
Water
Perfume
Cream
Soap

Q8: Which of the following correctly represents the relationship between u (object distance), v (image distance) and f (focal length) of a spherical mirror?
\(\frac{1}{v} + \frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{f}\)
\(\frac{1}{v} - \frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{2f}\)
\(\frac{1}{v} + \frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{2f}\)
\(\frac{1}{v} - \frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{f}\)

Q9: Which of the following shows Tyndall effect?
Solutions
Colloids
Metals
Gases

Q10: A spherical mirror, whose reflecting surface faces towards the centre of the sphere, is called a ______.
plano-convex mirror
concave mirror
plane mirror
convex mirror

Q11: In September 2024, L&T Semiconductor Technologies (SILT) signed an agreement with which of the following companies to co-develop advanced processors for edge devices, hybrid cloud systems and areas like mobility, industrial, energy and servers?
Nvidia
Intel
Dell
IBM

Q12: Which of the following statements about a colloidal solution is INCORRECT?
Colloidal solutions are a heterogeneous mixture.
Components cannot be separated by the process of filtration.
Fog is an example of a colloidal solution.
Milk is not a colloidal solution.

Q13: Where is glucose converted into pyruvate?
Ribosome
Cytoplasm
Golgi-complex
Mitochondria

Q14: The effective resistance of the parallel combination of two resistors is always ______.
less than the resistance of the individual resistors
equal to the product of resistance of the individual resistors
greater than the resistance of the individual resistors
equal to the sum of the resistance of the resistors

Q15: If a current of 1 A is flowing through a conductor for 10 secs, then the charge flowing through it (in coulombs) will be:
1
0.1
10
100

Q16: The value of acceleration due to gravity 'g' is ______.
negative at the equator and positive at the poles
greater at the equator than at the poles
the same at the poles and equator
greater at the poles than at the equator

Q17: Which of the following was not one of the nine priority areas of the Union Budget 2024-25 aimed at generating ample opportunities for all?
Employment and skill training
Energy security
Manufacturing and services
Sustainable development of fisheries

Q18: Who among the following is a Tamil Nadu bus conductor, known for planting 3 lakh saplings over 30 years, has won multiple awards for his eco-activism?
Marimuthu Yoganathan
MS Swaminathan
Vijay Kumar
Sundar Pichai

Q19: The pressure exerted on a body is 10 \( \text{Nm}^{-2} \), if the area of the body is 2 \( \text{m}^{2} \); then the thrust acting on the body will be:
2 N
20 N
10 N
5 N

Q20: What is the filtration unit of the kidney?
Neuron
Seminiferous tubule
Sperm
Nephron

Q21: ______ is useful for the survival of species over time.
Reproduction
Budding
Population
Variation

Q22: Genes that control the characteristics of a trait are located on:
chromosomes
vacuoles
endoplasmic reticulum
lysosome

Q23: In surrogacy cases, the surrogate as well as the commissioning mother may be granted maternity leave of how many days, in case either or both of them are government servants, as per new rule passed by the Indian Government in June 2024?
180
30
45
90

Q24: At what temperature does water transform into steam under normal atmospheric pressure?
100°C (212°F)
50°C (122°F)
80°C (176°F)
0°C (32°F)

Q25: Which part of the flower grows and ripens to form a fruit?
Ovary
Petal
Pollen tube
Anther

Q26: Burning of unsaturated compounds gives which of the following?
Green flame
Red flame
Yellow flame
Clean flame

Q27: Project PARI is an initiative launched by which of the following organisations/Ministries to celebrate and enhance the public art scene in India?
Lalit Kala Akademi
Union Ministry of Culture
Centre for Cultural Resources and Training (CCRT)
Sahitya Akademi

Q28: What happens to the motion of an object when balanced forces act on it?
Its state of motion remains unchanged.
It changes its direction of motion.
It speeds up.
It slows down.

Q29: In 2024, what major upgrade did the Indian Air Force (IAF) focus on to enhance its defense capabilities?
Acquisition of advanced drones for surveillance
Upgrading the Sukhoi-30MKI fleet with new avionics
Expansion of the cyber defense unit
Development of indigenously produced submarines

Q30: The displacement of a body is perpendicular to the direction in which the force is applied; the work done in this case will be:
Infinite
Positive
Zero
Negative

Q31: Organisms whose cells lack a nuclear membrane are called ______.
eukaryotes
prokaryotes
cytoplasm
chromatin

Q32: Which one of the following options is correctly paired according to their mode of action?
Contraceptive pills – Uterine device
Copper T – Hormonal imbalance
Tubectomy – Chemical barrier
Condom – Mechanical barrier

Q33: Identify the process with the given description. ‘The seed contains the future plant or embryo which develops into a seedling under appropriate conditions’.
Regeneration
Fermentation
Plantation
Germination

Q34: Where was the Ministry of Coal’s first-ever coal gallery, an exhibition titled ‘Black Diamond: Unveiling the Depths,’ inaugurated in October 2024?
Dhanbad
Ranchi
Raipur
New Delhi

Q35: What are the balanced products of the following reaction? \[ \text{Na}_2\text{SO}_4(\text{aq}) + \text{BaCl}_2 (\text{aq}) \rightarrow \_\_\_\_ + \_\_\_\_ \]
\(\text{BaSO}_4 (\text{s}) + 2\text{NaCl}_2 (\text{aq})\)
\(\text{BaSO}_2 (\text{s}) + \text{NaCl} (\text{aq}) + \text{O}_2 (\text{g})\)
\(2\text{BaSO}_2 (\text{s}) + 2\text{NaCl} (\text{aq}) + 2\text{O}_2 (\text{g})\)
\(\text{BaSO}_4 (\text{s}) + 2\text{NaCl} (\text{aq})\)

Q36: Which of the following symbols were used by Bohr to represent different electron orbits in his atomic model?
A, B, C, D, E….
W, X, Y, Z, A….
R, S T, U, V….
K, L, M, N, O…

Q37: Who was appointed as the Head Coach of the Indian men’s cricket team in July 2024?
Gautam Gambhir
Rahul Dravid
VVS Laxman
MS Dhoni

Q38: Which of the options below represents the correct chemical formula of calcium hydroxide?
Ca(OH)₂
Mg(OH)₂
KOH
NaOH

Q39: Which of the following represents the molecular formula for carbon monoxide?
CO₃
CO₂
C₂O
CO

Q40: A negative sign in magnification of spherical mirrors indicates that the ______.
image is diminished
image is enlarged
image is virtual
image is real

Q41: How many seats did the Indian National Congress win in Rajasthan in Lok Sabha election 2024?
25
1
14
8

Q42: The ovule develops and gets converted into which of the following after fertilisation?
Author
Fruit
Seed
Sepal

Q43: Find the magnitude of applied force on a box of mass 10 kg for 20 s. It increases the box's velocity from 5 m s\(^{-1}\) to 15 m s\(^{-1}\).
1 N
4 N
5 N
10 N

Q44: Match the hormones with their respective functions.
1. Thyroxina. Control body’s growth and development
2. Growth hormoneb. Male sex organ development
3. Testosteronec. Controls the level of blood sugar in the body
4. Insulind. Controls the body’s metabolism of fat, protein and carbohydrates.
1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d
1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c

Q45: Which of the following is produced when carbon dioxide reacts with calcium hydroxide?
CaO + H₂O
CaCO₃ + H₂O
CO + H₂O
H₂CO₃ + H₂O

Q46: Methane, on burning with oxygen, gives which of the following products?
Carbon dioxide and water
Carbonic acid
Carbon monoxide and water
Carbon monoxide only

Q47: An electric lamp, whose resistance is 10 Ω, and a conductor of 2 Ω resistance are connected to a 24 V battery in series. Then the current through the circuit will be ______.
3 A
2 A
1 A
4 A

Q48: Nutrition is provided to the embryo from the mother’s blood with the help of the:
oviduct
placenta
scrotum
ovary

Q49: Which of the following options is the same as Newton’s second law of motion?
Applied force on a body is inversely proportional to the acceleration of the body.
The rate of change of momentum of an object is independent of the applied unbalanced force.
An object at rest will remain at rest when external force is not applied.
If an object is in motion, applied force is directly proportional to the acceleration.

Q50: Which of the given statements is/are correct? 
a) There are two types of waste: biodegradable and non-biodegradable. 
b) We should collect dry waste and wet waste separately.
Neither a) nor b)
Only b)
Both a) and b)
Only a)

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