Welcome to our series of practice questions for the RRB Technician Grade 3 exam! In this post, we’ve compiled the General Knowledge (GK) questions from the 24 December, 2024 Shift 3 exam. These questions are presented in a multiple-choice format to help you practice effectively.
Preparing with real shift-based GK questions is a great way to familiarize yourself with the exam pattern, boost your confidence, and improve your performance. Let’s get started!
Exam Overview
Before diving into the GK questions, it’s important to understand the structure of the RRB Technician Grade 3 exam. The exam typically includes multiple subjects, each with a specific marks allocation. Below is a table showing the subject-wise marks distribution:
| Subjects | No. of Questions | Maximum Marks |
|---|---|---|
| General Awareness | 10 | 10 |
| General Intelligence and Reasoning | 25 | 25 |
| Mathematics | 25 | 25 |
| General Science | 40 | 40 |
RRB Technician Grade 3 Paper: 24 December, 2024 Shift 3
- Duration: 90 minutes.
- Negative Marking: 1/3 marks deducted for wrong answers.
- Shift: 3 (4:30 PM - 6:00 PM)
Practice
Show All Answers
Q1: ______ on 9 September 2024 emphasised that safety and social audits of cities and institutions should be carried out to get a better idea about the lags and issues that currently exist in terms of ensuring women’s safety in India.
The Prajnya Trust for Women (PTW)
The All India Federation of Women Lawyers (AIFWL)
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
The Self-Employed Women’s Association (SEWA)
Q2: Which of the following forces is responsible for the tides, due to the Moon and the Sun?
Nuclear force
Electromagnetic force
Electrostatic force
Gravitation force
Q3: Which of the following carries egg from the ovary to the womb?
Placenta
Fallopian tube
Vagina
Cervix
Q4: The weight of an object was 60 N when measured on the surface of the earth. What would be its weight when measured on the surface of the moon?
10 N
60 N
39 N
30 N
Q5: What is the function of gustatory receptors?
They detect sound.
They detect smell.
They detect taste.
They detect light.
Q6: Which of the following is the correct unit mass of sodium?
18u
20u
23u
11u
Q7: Which of the following is INCORRECT about plant hormones?
Different plant hormones help to coordinate responses to the environment.
Different plant hormones help to coordinate growth and development.
All plant hormones except abscisic acid help in promoting growth.
All plant hormones except cytokinins promote cell division.
Q8: Use of regenerative cells in the process of budding is present in:
Planaria
Amoeba
Spirogyra
Hydra
Q9: Who is the current Directorate General of National Cadet Corps of India as of October 2024?
Gurbirpal Singh
Manoj Pande
Dalbir Singh Suhag
Bikram Singh
Q10: According to Thomson's model of an atom, an atom is compared to which of the following fruits?
Apple
Banana
Watermelon
Mango
Q11: The Moldams-the Mound-Burial System of the Ahom Dynasty in ______ was added to the list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites in 2024.
Manipur
Mizoram
Meghalaya
Assam
Q12: According to the laws of refraction, which of the following is/are true?
(A) The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the interface of two transparent media do not lie in the same plane.
(B) For a given colour of light and a given pair of media, the ratio of the sine of angle of incidence to sine of angle of refraction is a constant.
(A) The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the interface of two transparent media do not lie in the same plane.
(B) For a given colour of light and a given pair of media, the ratio of the sine of angle of incidence to sine of angle of refraction is a constant.
‘A’ is false and ‘B’ is true.
Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are false.
‘A’ is true and ‘B’ is false.
Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are true.
Q13: There are two statements given below. Select the correct option with regards to these statements.
A. The loss of water in the form of vapour from the aerial parts of the plant is known as transpiration.
B. During the day when the stomata are open, the transpiration pull becomes the major driving force in the movement of water in the xylem.
A. The loss of water in the form of vapour from the aerial parts of the plant is known as transpiration.
B. During the day when the stomata are open, the transpiration pull becomes the major driving force in the movement of water in the xylem.
A is correct and B is incorrect.
Both A and B are incorrect.
A is incorrect and B is correct.
Both A and B are correct.
Q14: If the length of a conductor is doubled, then the resistance of the conductor will be: (other parameters are kept same)
halved
the same
doubled
one fourth
Q15: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced its monetary policy on 9th October 2024, maintaining the repo rate at ______.
6.5%
7.5%
6.75%
6.25%
Q16: An object is displaced horizontally because of the applied force. What is revealed by this action?
The force decreases the mass of the object.
The force increases the mass of the object.
The force increases the inertia of the object.
Work is done by the force.
Q17: Which plant species does NOT reproduce through vegetative propagation?
Sugarcane
Rose
Papaya
Banana
Q18: The refractive index is related to:
the magnetic moment of two different media
the dielectric polarizability of two media
the speed of propagation of light in two different media
the frequency of light in two different media
Q19: Animals like hydra and planaria can be cut into any number of pieces and each piece grows into a complete organism. This is known as:
budding
regeneration
fragmentation
binary fission
Q20: The magnetic field lines produced inside a long current carrying solenoid is similar to that of a:
ring magnet
bar magnet
disc magnet
horseshoe magnet
Q21: The following equation is an example of which type of reaction?
CuSO₄ + 2NaOH → Cu(OH)₂ + Na₂SO₄
CuSO₄ + 2NaOH → Cu(OH)₂ + Na₂SO₄
Combustion reaction
Combination reaction
Double displacement reaction
Neutralisation reaction
Q22: Which of the following symptoms is related to myopia?
A person can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see distant objects distinctly.
A person can see both nearby and distant objects distinctly.
A person cannot see both nearby and distant objects distinctly.
A person can see distant objects clearly but cannot see nearby objects distinctly.
Q23: Which of the following molecules has single covalent bond?
N₂
O₂
H₂
CO₂
Q24: Which of the following is produced when barium chloride reacts with sodium sulphate?
Brown precipitate of BaSO₄
Yellow precipitate of BaSO₄
White precipitate of BaSO₄
Black precipitate of BaSO₄
Q25: The chemical reaction between an acid and base is termed as:
neutralisation reaction
endothermic reaction
condensation reaction
decomposition reaction
Q26: ______ became the first Indian to win a race at FIA Motorsport Games in October 2024.
Rivaan Dev Preetham
Narain Karthikeyan
Sundaram Karivaradhan
Jehan Devan Daruvala
Q27: Match the cell organelles with their respective functions.
| Cell organelles | Functions |
|---|---|
| 1. Cell wall | a. Digests any foreign matter and worn-out cellular components |
| 2. Ribosomes | b. Gives plants their structural strength |
| 3. Lysosomes | c. Sites involved in protein manufacture |
| 4. Golgi apparatus | d. Linked to the production of lysosomes |
1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d
1-b, 2d, 3-c, 4-a
1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
Q28: The Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2024, was introduced in the Lok Sabha on ______.
9 August 2024
8 August 2024
7 August 2024
6 August 2024
Q29: Which organisation has partnered with Sagar Defence to develop India’s first underwater-launched unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs)?
Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)
DRDO
Indian Navy
ISRO
Q30: Which of the following statements is/are correct related to the eco-system?
(i) Ozone is a molecule formed by three atoms of oxygen.
(ii) Oxygen (O₂) is essential for all aerobic forms of life.
(iii) Ozone is non-poisonous.
(i) Ozone is a molecule formed by three atoms of oxygen.
(ii) Oxygen (O₂) is essential for all aerobic forms of life.
(iii) Ozone is non-poisonous.
(i), (ii) and (iii)
Only (i) and (ii)
Only (i) and (iii)
Only (i)
Q31: In order to put up Rutherford's model, what type of metal foil did the scientist use?
Gold
Palladium
Silver
Platinum
Q32: Select the correct chemical reaction that represents the chlor-alkali process.
2NaCl(aq) + 2H₂O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl₂(g) + H₂(g)
2CaCl₂(aq) + 2H₂O(l) → 2Ca(OH)₂(aq) + Cl₂(g) + H₂(g)
2MgCl₂(aq) + 2H₂O(l) → 2Mg(OH)₂(aq) + Cl₂(g) + H₂(g)
2KCl(aq) + 2H₂O(l) → 2KOH(aq) + Cl₂(g) + H₂(g)
Q33: Identify the INCORRECT statement about complex permanent tissue.
Vascular bundles are a characteristic feature.
Complex tissue includes parenchyma and collenchyma.
There is more than one type of cell.
Cells work together.
Q34: Which of the given substances is NOT biodegradable in nature?
A. Vegetable peels
B. Plastic bottles
C. Spoilt food
A. Vegetable peels
B. Plastic bottles
C. Spoilt food
A, B and C
Only B
Only A
Both A and C
Q35: The Indian government has allocated ₹______ for the National Film Development Corporation in the 2024-25 budget.
46 crore
36 crore
16 crore
23 crore
Q36: In case of a drastic change in niches of organisms, which of the following can save the population of an organism from getting completely wiped out?
Isolation
Evolution
Variation
Nutrition
Q37: By whom was the 'Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam' tree plantation campaign launched throughout the country on the World Environment Day (5th June 2024)?
Shri Narendra Modi
Dr. Jitendra Singh
Shri Amit Shah
Shri Bhupender Yadav
Q38: During the deposition procedure, which type of state conversion will take place?
Solid to gaseous state
Liquid to solid state
Gaseous to solid state
Solid to liquid state
Q39: From the given following metals, which one is least reactive towards displacement reaction?
Copper, iron, zinc and lead.
Copper, iron, zinc and lead.
Iron
Iron and zinc
Lead
Copper
Q40: Considering the right-hand thumb rule, what parameter is indicated by the fingers curled around the conductor?
Deflection of needle
Magnetic field
Force
Current
Q41: Which of the following statements is correct for a heterogeneous mixture?
The composition is the mixture is uniform.
A clear solution is called a heterogeneous mixture.
Mixtures don’t contain physically distinct parts.
The composition of the mixture is non-uniform.
Q42: The aperture of a spherical mirror is:
distance between object and mirror
diameter of reflecting surface of the mirror
distance between center and focus
distance between image and mirror
Q43: Burning of coal is an example of which type of chemical reaction?
Combination reaction
Double decomposition reaction
Decomposition reaction
Reduction reaction
Q44: Involuntary actions including blood pressure, salivation and vomiting are controlled by:
cerebellum in fore-brain
medulla in hind-brain
only the heart
only the spinal cord
Q45: ______ became the first Indian track-and-field athlete to win medals at consecutive Olympics.
Aman Sehrawat
Swapnil Kusale
Neeraj Chopra
Manu Bhaker
Q46: Ramm is working hard to push a huge rock by applying 1N force, but the rock does not move at all. The net work done by Ramm is:
+1 J
0 J
-1 J
1000 J
Q47: What will be the name of product that is formed when metals react with air?
Metal hydride
Metal chloride
Metal oxide
Metal nitrate
Q48: Which of the following is the tiny blob-on-a-stick structures in fungi that are involved in reproduction?
Spermatogonia
Sporophyte
Sporangia
Gametophyte
Q49: A cart is moving with a uniform velocity and a retarding force F is applied in the opposite direction to stop the cart. The work done by the force is:
undetermined
negative
zero
positive
Report Card
Total Questions Attempted: 0
Correct Answers: 0
Wrong Answers: 0
Keep Practicing!
How to Use This Post
-
Practice Mode: Attempt questions one by one to test your knowledge.
-
Instant Answers: Toggle “Show All Answers” to reveal solutions instantly.
-
Focus Weak Areas: Review incorrect answers to strengthen your preparation.
Why These Questions Matter
-
Real Exam Feel: The questions are identical to those asked in 2024.
-
Topic Weightage: Observe which subjects (e.g., Basic Science & Engineering) carry more weight.
Post a Comment