If you’re preparing for the RPF SI CBT 1 Exam 2025, practicing previous shifts’ questions can be a game-changer. This post shares the 50 General Knowledge (GK) questions from the total 120 questions asked in Shift 3 on 9th December 2024 in RRB RPF SI CBT-I to help you gauge the exam’s scope, difficulty, and trending topics. This targeted resource is your key to unlocking a competitive edge, sharpening your readiness and confidence for the actual test.
Exam Overview (2024)
The RRB RPF SI CBT-1 exam evaluates candidates across 3 key subjects:
| Subjects | No. of Questions | Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Basic Arithmetic | 35 | 35 |
| General Awareness | 50 | 50 |
| General Intelligence & Reasoning | 35 | 35 |
| Total | 120 | 120 |
RRB RPF SI CBT-1 Paper: 09 December, 2024 Shift 3
- Duration: 90 minutes.
-
Marks for Correct Answers: +1
-
Marks for Un-attempted Questions: 0
-
Negative Marking: 1/3 marks deducted for wrong answers.
- Shift:1 (4:30 PM - 6:00 PM)
Practice
Show All Answers
Q1: The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the _______________________
and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India.
President of India
Lok Sabha Speaker
Prime Minister of India
Chief Justice of India
Q2: The Vande Bharat Express is made in which country?
India
England
Japan
Korea
Q3: Arrange the following rivers in the ascending order based on the size of
their basins:
Godavari, Krishna, Mahanadi, Ganga.
Ganga > Godavari > Krishna > Mahanadi
Ganga > Mahanadi > Krishna > Godaveri
Ganga > Mahanadi > Godavari > Krishna
Ganga > Krishna > Mahanadi > Godavari
Q4: Which of the following articles deals with the power of the President to
make regulations for certain Union territories?
Article 244
Article 240
Article 248
Article 235
Q5: Which of the following is NOT one of Kepler's laws of planetary
motion?
A. The orbit of each planet around the Sun is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the two foci.
B. The orbits of all planets around the Sun are coplanar.
C. A line segment joining a planet and the Sun sweeps out equal areas during equal intervals of time.
D. The square of the orbital period of a planet is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit.
A. The orbit of each planet around the Sun is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the two foci.
B. The orbits of all planets around the Sun are coplanar.
C. A line segment joining a planet and the Sun sweeps out equal areas during equal intervals of time.
D. The square of the orbital period of a planet is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit.
C
D
B
A
Q6: Which initiative has been introduced in DISC 12 to foster the
development of medical technologies for the Armed Forces in 2024?
MIRA
AIM
ADITI
iDEX
Q7: Match the states in list I with the sex ratios as per Census 2011 in
list II.
| State (List-I) | Sex Ratio (as per Census 2011) (List-II) |
|---|---|
| 1. Uttar Pradesh | a. 931 |
| 2. Bihar | b. 918 |
| 3. Madhya Pradesh | c. 929 |
| 4. Maharashtra | d. 912 |
1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a
1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c
1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c
Q8: Mopin Festival is celebrated in which state of India?
Haryana
Arunachal Pradesh
Rajasthan
Uttar Pradesh
Q9: Which of the following universities is acclaimed as the 'Oxford of
Mahayanism'?
Taxila
Vallabhi
Vikramshila
Nalanda
Q10: Which musical instrument is commonly associated with Rajasthani folk
music?
Morchang
Tabla
Shehnai
Dholak
Q11: In which year did King George V and Queen Mary of Britain visit India,
and the announcement regarding the transfer of India's capital from Calcutta
(Kolkata) to Delhi take place?
1911
1908
1901
1858
Q12: Which of the following statements is NOT correct about ‘Globalisation’?
It helps to create borderless world
It helps in alleviating problems and increased sustainable development
benefits
It is the process of interaction and integration among people
It encourages flows of investment, people and information
Q13: Which government programme in India aims at eradicating poverty through
employment generation in rural areas?
National Food Security Act (NFSA)
Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY)
National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
Q14: Which of the following is the first stage of karyokinesis of mitosis
that follows the S and G2 phases of interphase?
Anaphase
Telophase
Metaphase
Prophase
Q15: Who among the following renowned musicians is celebrated for
popularising the unique instrument known as the 'Sarod' and is considered
one of the most famous maestros of the Senia Shahjahanpur gharana?
Ustad Amjad Ali Khan
Ustad Ali Akbar Khan
Pandit Ravi Shankar
Ustad Bismillah Khan
Q16: Delhi Sultanate signifies the rule over India with capital as Delhi, of
which community?
Turkish
African
Persian
Arabian
Q17: According to the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD), how many
seasons are there in India?
7
3
6
4
Q18: What was the role of Nayakas under the Amara-Nayaka system of
Vijayanagar administration?
Army Commander
Revenue Collector
Head of the Spies
Village Head
Q19: Which of the following countries rejoined the UNESCO in July 2023 and
became its 194th member?
United Kingdom
India
United States of America
Iran
Q20: The Hindustan Aeronautics Limited handed over the first twin-seater
Light Combat Aircraft ‘Tejas’ to the Indian Air Force in the year _________.
2014
2023
2024
2018
Q21: How many members of Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President of
India?
10
08
14
12
Q22: Who among the following was the first Indian woman to become the
President of Indian National Congress?
Nelli Sengupta
Annie Besant
Madam Bhikaji Cama
Sarojini Naidu
Q23: What is the name of the half humanoid robot that India is planning to
launch in space before the actual human mission Gaganyaan to test flight
criticalities?
Nabhmitra
Antariksha vicharak
Gaganmaitri
Vyommitra
Q24: Which of the following is NOT one of the recent initiatives of the
Government of India to generate opportunities of employment?
Skill India
Make in India
Unicorn India
Start Up India
Q25: Who is the Chairperson of NITI Aayog?
Home Minister
Vice-President
President
Prime Minister
Q26: In which sport did Indian player Nitesh Kumar win a gold medal at the
Paris Paralympic Games 2024?
Badminton
Athletics
Shooting
Archery
Q27: In December 2023, Revanth Reddy became the Chief Minister of which
state?
Chhattisgarh
Madhya Pradesh
Telangana
Karnataka
Q28: Which equation demonstrates that electricity, magnetism and light are
all manifestations of the electromagnetic field?
Ohm's equation
Laplace equation
Maxwell's equation
Kirchhoff's equation
Q29: As per the Indian Constitution, who among the following is considered
as the chief aid and advisor of the Governor of a State?
Chief Minister of the State
Chief Justice of the High Court
Advocate General
Chief Secretary
Q30: Which scheme is focussed on promoting entrepreneurship among SC/STs and
women by providing loans at concessional rates?
Startup India
Stand-Up India Scheme
MUDRA Yojana
Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Yojana (PMRY)
Q31: In August 2023, the Defence Ministry of India decided to switch its
operating system from Windows to a locally built OS amid rising trends in
cyberthreats. The name of the new OS is _________.
Survekshan
Surakshakavach
Maya
Megh
Q32: Which of the following Fundamental Duties was added by the 42nd
Constitutional Amendment, 1976?
To uphold and protect the harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood
amongst all the people of India
To work for the country
Amend the Constitution and its ideals
To safeguard private property
Q33: _______ has won the National Award for the best implementation of
Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), which is a crop subsidy insurance
scheme, for the year 2022-23?
Karnataka
Uttar Pradesh
Punjab
Tamil Nadu
Q34: The acid present in the cells of our body is _______________.
sulphuric acid
deoxyribonucleic acid
ribonucleic acid
oxalic acid
Q35: The synthetic auxin 2,4-D is commonly used as a ___________.
signalling hormone
defense hormone
stress hormone
herbicide
Q36: Who among the following was appointed as the Governor of Chitor after
Akbar invaded it in 1567?
Adham Khan
Maan Singh
Bairam Khan
Asaf Khan
Q37: Which of the following is/are food as well as fodder crops grown under
semi-arid climatic conditions sown all over India except in eastern and
northeastern regions?
Cotton
Maize
Pulses
Areca nut
Q38: Which Indian table tennis player won her maiden international title in
the women’s singles event at the WTT Feeder Corpus Christi 2024 in Texas,
USA, in January 2024?
Sreeja Akula
Manika Batra
Ankita Das
Sutirtha Mukherjee
Q39: The signatories of the Poona Pact were the Mahatma Gandhi Group and the
_________.
Subhas Chandra Bose Group
Jawaharlal Nehru Group
Dr. BR Ambedkar Group
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Group
Q40: The efficient market hypothesis (EMH) is foundational to the Capital
Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). To test the validity of the EMH, one can examine
whether historical data contradicts CAPM. If historical data were to
contradict CAPM, which of the following would this imply about the efficient
market hypothesis?
It would imply that CAPM is infallible.
It would imply that the historical data is irrelevant to market efficiency.
It would imply that the market is inefficient.
It would imply that the market is always efficient.
Q41: Which house of the parliament has the most powers in matters of Money
bills?
Vidhan Sabha
Rajya Sabha
Vidhan Parishad
Lok Sabha
Q42: According to Census of India 2011, how many states recorded less than
10 lakhs population?
Two
Zero
One
Three
Q43: What is the name of the United Nations specialised agency for
Information and Communication Technologies (ICTs), which has released the
5th edition of Global Cybersecurity Index (GCI) in 2024?
International Telecommunication Union
World Telecommunication Union
Global Telecommunication Union
United Nations World Communication Union
Q44: Which of the following statements regarding Fundamental Rights is/are
NOT CORRECT?
1. Fundamental Rights are described in Articles 12 to 36 in Part-3 of the Constitution.
2. This part is called the Magna Carta of India.
3. Their objective is to create a government of law in the country and not of individuals.
4. These are not absolute; the state can impose reasonable restrictions on them.
1. Fundamental Rights are described in Articles 12 to 36 in Part-3 of the Constitution.
2. This part is called the Magna Carta of India.
3. Their objective is to create a government of law in the country and not of individuals.
4. These are not absolute; the state can impose reasonable restrictions on them.
Only 1 and 4
Only 1 and 3
Only 1
Only 3 and 4
Q45: How many amino acids out of the 22 needed by the human body, are NOT
produced in the human body?
8
16
14
12
Q46: In September 2024, who among the following launched the Jan Sunwai
Portal of the Department of Commerce, designed to streamline communication
between stakeholders and authorities?
Chetanya Kasyap
Piyush Goyal
Bimal Borah
Krishna Kumar Vishnoi
Q47: El Nino is a narrow warm current which occasionally appears off the
coast of ___________.
Brazil
Australia
Uganda
Peru
Q48: What is the role of the Experts Advisory Committee (EAC) in the
implementation of the Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS)?
Approving individual startup funding requests
Monitoring the performance of startups receiving funding
Disbursing funds directly to startups
Evaluating and selecting incubators for fund allocation
Q49: The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) issued a drug safety alert in
December 2023 advising healthcare professionals and patients to monitor
adverse reactions to ‘Meftal’, which has _______ properties
antihistamine
antipyretic
antacid
antipruritic
Q50: Who among the following wrote the book ‘Significance of Vimanam and
Gopuram’?
Niketan Anand Gaur
Dr. V Ganapati Sthapati
Sashi Tharoor
Romila Thapar
Report Card
Total Questions Attempted: 0
Correct Answers: 0
Wrong Answers: 0
Keep Practicing!
Why These Questions Matter
Studying real exam questions from recent shifts offers three advantages:
1. Pattern Recognition: Identify recurring topics like current affairs, Indian polity, or science.
2. Difficulty Benchmark: Understand if questions are fact-based, conceptual, or application-oriented.
3. Revision Efficiency: Prioritize high-weightage areas (e.g., government schemes, sports awards) for targeted preparation.
Pro Tip for Aspirants
Pair these questions with daily current affairs updates (January–December 2024) and static GK notes on history, geography, and the Indian Constitution. This combo will strengthen your speed and accuracy!
How to Use These Questions Effectively
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Daily Practice: Solve 10-15 questions daily to retain facts.
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Mock Tests: Mix these questions with other shifts’ GK sets for a broader practice range.
-
Analyze Mistakes: Revisit incorrect answers and clarify concepts immediately.
Final Thoughts
The RPF SI CBT 1 Exam demands consistent practice and strategic preparation. By working through these 50 GK questions, you’ll build confidence and adaptability for the actual test. Bookmark this post for quick revision, and pair it with our topic-wise guides to cover all bases!
Next Steps
After mastering this shift’s questions, explore our posts for
12th December, 2024 Shift 1, 2, 3, and 13th December Shift 1, 2, 3 and
others Shifts of 2024 RRB RRB SI CBT-1 Shifts
to gain a complete understanding of the exam. Consistent practice with real
questions is your best tool for success!