If you’re preparing for the RPF SI CBT 1 Exam 2025, practicing previous shifts’ questions can be a game-changer. This post shares the 50 General Knowledge (GK) questions from the total 120 questions asked in Shift 3 on 3rd December 2024 in RRB RPF SI CBT-I to help you gauge the exam’s scope, difficulty, and trending topics. This targeted resource is your key to unlocking a competitive edge, sharpening your readiness and confidence for the actual test.
Exam Overview (2024)
The RRB RPF SI CBT-1 exam evaluates candidates across 3 key subjects:
| Subjects | No. of Questions | Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Basic Arithmetic | 35 | 35 |
| General Awareness | 50 | 50 |
| General Intelligence & Reasoning | 35 | 35 |
| Total | 120 | 120 |
RRB RPF SI CBT-1 Paper: 03 December, 2024 Shift 3
- Duration: 90 minutes.
-
Marks for Correct Answers: +1
-
Marks for Un-attempted Questions: 0
-
Negative Marking: 1/3 marks deducted for wrong answers.
- Shift:1 (4:30 PM - 6:00 PM)
Practice
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Q1: Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the
President?
Attorney General of India
Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
Q2: In March 2024, Sports Minister Anurag Thakur announced the establishment
of how many National Centres of Excellence (NCOE) exclusively for women on
the occasion of International Women’s Day?
Four
Three
Two
Five
Q3: Which Carnatic vocalist was popularly known as the ‘Nightingale of
India’?
Laiguid Jayaraman
DK Patammal
Balamuraikrishna
MS Subbulakshmi
Q4: When did Ashwiri Vaishanov launch Digital Intelligence Platform (DIP) of
Department of Technology for Coordination among the stakeholders to curb
misuse of telecom resources in cyber-crime and financial fraud?
July 2024
January 2024
March 2024
August 2024
Q5: NASA’s very first space mission to study an M-type (metallic) asteroid,
Psyche mission, was launched on which date from Kennedy Space Center?
27 December 2023
01 July 2023
13 October 2023
15 March 2023
Q6: Which of the following did the conventional method specifically define
as ‘quasi-money’?
All forms of money
Media of exchange considered as money
Narrow money
Financial instruments that are not media of exchange but are substitutes
Q7: VL-832, PBW-502 and Aditya (HD 2781) are varieties of which Indian crop?
Rice
Wheat
Juie
Matze
Q8: Which of the following is the highest law officer in the Government of
India?
Judge of the Supreme Court
Attorney General of India
Chief Justice of India
Judge of High court
Q9: Which of the following authorites in India have the power to terminate
the citizenship of an individual under certain circumstances?
Union Government
Any State Government
Supreme Court
Delhi Government
Q10: Which of the following Gurjara-Parthihara kings was highly praised by
the Arabian scholar Sulaiman for keeping his empire safe from robbers?
Vatsaraja
Ramabhadra
Mihira Bhoja
Nagabhata II
Q11: Which Article of the Indian constitution deals with the advisory
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
Article 145
Article 148
Article 142
Article 143
Q12: Which of the following factors mainly contributes to the difference of
temperature between the coastal and interior areas?
Ocean currents
Distance from the sea (continentality)
Latitude
Altitude
Q13: India’s first tilapia parvovirus contamination was reported in Tamil
Nadu in October 2023. The virus primarily infected ______.
fishes
bats
monkeys
goats
Q14: What characterises employment in the informal sector of the Indian
economy?
Employment primarily involves self-employment or small, unregistered
businesses.
Employment contracts are always written and legally binding.
Workers are entitled to social security benefits and formal job protection.
Informal sector jobs are typically high-wage positions.
Q15: Which of the following is the longest train route in India as of 2023?
Agartala-Bangaluru
Dibrugath-Kanniyakumari
Tirnelveli-Katra
Tiruvananthpuram-Silchar
Q16: At which of the following sessions of the Congress did it get split
into the Moderates and the Extremists?
Lahore
Calcutta
Allahabad
Surat
Q17: Equity in agriculture called for ______, which primarily refers to
change in the ownership of landholdings.
land consolidation
land reform
Zamindari system
land grab
Q18: Where is the Lalitiagiri Buddhist site located?
Haryana
Rajasthan
Bihar
Odisha
Q19: Which of the following schemes hasShishu, Kishore and Tarun
sub-schemes?
Start-up India
Mudra Yojana
DeenDayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushaiya Yojana
Gold Monetisation Scheme
Q20: Which of the following union territories reported the highest literacy
rate according to the Census of India 2011?
Lakshabweep
Daman and Diu
Chandigarh
Puducherry
Q21: Spain joined the International Solar Alliance (ISA) as which member in
May 2024?
97\(^{th}\)
99\(^{th}\)
94\(^{th}\)
100\(^{th}\)
Q22: Through which of the following platforms does the New India Literacy
Programme (NILP) encourage learners to access content in local languages
across the country?
DIKSHA platform
DISHA portal
Google Classroom
PM Abhyas portal
Q23: Which of the following has the highest specific heat capacity at room
temperature and atmospheric pressure?
Water
Glass
Mercury
Iron
Q24: As part of military-to-military exchange programmes, a contingent of
Indian Special Forces troops engaged in a bilateral joint training exercise
GARUDA SHAKTI with which of the following countries in Nov 2022?
Indonesia
Malaysia
Vietnam
Taiwan
Q25: Identify the INCORRECT pair of biosphere reserve and its associated
state from the given options.
Nokrek – Mizoram
Dibru-Sakhowa – Assam
Panna – Madhya Pradesh
Seehachalam – Andhra Pradesh
Q26: Who is the author of the story book The End of Imagination?
Arundhati Roy
Shashi Tharcor
Prasanna Kumar Acharya
Pema Dorjee
Q27: Who among the following kings of the Gupta dynasty married the
Lichchhavi princess (Kumari devi)?
Chandra Gupta III
Kumara Gupta
Chandra Gupta I
Samudra Gupta
Q28: Rauwolfia serpentina is a:
poisonous snake
contributing organism of AIDS
heiminin parasite
medicinal plant
Q29: Which food safety management system published in 2005 provides a
framework for organisations to manage food safety?
ISO 9000
ISO 14000
ISO 17025
ISO 22000
Q30: Which of the following was NOT a part of Shailendra Empire, founded in
the South East Asia, in the 8th Century CE?
Sumatra
Java
Srilanka
Malaya
Q31: According to the DSCI-SEQRITE India Cyber Threat Report, 2023, which of
the following industrial sectors has/have detected the highest number of
malware attack spectrums?
Automobiles
Education
Logistics
IT Industries
Q32: Which of the following launch vehicles was used to launch the
Aditya-L1, the first solar mission of India?
Geosynchronous Launch Vehicle
Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle -XL
Space Launch Vehicle
Geosynchronous Launch Vehicle Mark III
Q33: In ______ tales from Mahabharata are sung as a ballad and one or two
episodes are chosen for the night’s performance in Chhattisgarh.
Sohar
Pandavani
Chhakri
Alha
Q34: In eastern Bengal, Matua sect of social reformer, ______ worked among
Chandala cultivators.
Akshay Kumar Datla
Haridas Thakur
Guru Ghasidas
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
Q35: Where did the Judo Federation of India conduct the Senior National Judo
Championships 2023-24 in the month of October 2023?
Patna
New Delhi
Bhopal
Jaipur
Q36: In which of the following countries is the policy of dual citizenship
accepted?
UK
China
US
India
Q37: What is the name of the Prime Minister’s new rooftop solar power scheme
launched by Shri Narendra Modi on 15 February 2024?
Pradhan Mantri Gami Ujala Yojana
Pradhan Mantri Ujala Yojana
PM Suya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana
Pradhan Mantri Suya Kiran Yojana
Q38: Select the correct statement among the following regarding the Lok
Adalats.
1. This is a symbol of the justice system that has been prevalent since ancient times.
2. This system is based on Gandhian principles.
3. After independence, the first Lok Adalat in India was established in Madhya Pradesh in the near 1982.
4. The decision given by the Lok Adalat is not binding on both the parties.
1. This is a symbol of the justice system that has been prevalent since ancient times.
2. This system is based on Gandhian principles.
3. After independence, the first Lok Adalat in India was established in Madhya Pradesh in the near 1982.
4. The decision given by the Lok Adalat is not binding on both the parties.
Only 1 and 2
Only 2, 3 and 4
Only 1
Only 1, 3 and 4
Q39: Who among the following had one of their capitals at Benaras?
Palas
Gahadavalas
Paramaras
Chahamaras
Q40: Which of the following is associated with strain?
Raster
Dimensionless
Scalar
Vector
Q41: According to the sustainable development approach, which of the
following strategies is essential for rural development?
Prioritising short-term economic gains
Focusing solely on agricultural productivity
Increasing reliance on non-rereavable resources
Integrating environmental sustainability with economic development
Q42: Match the (List-I cities) with (List-II temperature) characteristics:
and chose your answer the code below.
(List-I - Cities) (List-II - Temperature)
(A) Pahalgam I. 50°C in summer, 15°C at night
(B) Drass II. Temperature can be as low as minus 45°C
(C) Thar Desert III. Around 20°C in summer
(List-I - Cities) (List-II - Temperature)
(A) Pahalgam I. 50°C in summer, 15°C at night
(B) Drass II. Temperature can be as low as minus 45°C
(C) Thar Desert III. Around 20°C in summer
(D) Thiruvananthapuram IV. Temperature is 22°C
(a) iv (b) iii (c) ii (d) i
(a) ii (b) iii (c) i (d) iv
(a) iii (b) i (c) ii (d) iv
(a) iii (b) ii (c) i (d) iv
Q43: Where was the joint military exercise MAITREE 2024 conducted between
the Indian Army and the Royal Thailand Army?
Bangkok, Thailand
Chiang Mai, Thailand
Phuket, Thailand
Tak Province, Thailand
Q44: Who among the following was NOT associated with ‘Servants of India
Society’?
Natesh Appaj Dravid
Gopal Krishna Deodhar
Bal Gangadhari Tilak
Anant Vinayak Patwardhan
Q45: What is the product of the following reaction?
2NaOH (aq) + Zn (s) →
2NaOH (aq) + Zn (s) →
Na\(_2\)ZnO\(_2\) (s) and H\(_2\)O (l)
ZnO\(_2\) (s) and N\(_2\)O (g)
Na\(_2\)ZnO\(_2\) (s) and H\(_2\) (g)
ZnO\(_2\) (s) and H\(_2\)O (l)
Q46: To which phylum do round worms belong?
Annelda
Cienophora
Aschelminthes
Platyhelminthes
Q47: Where did Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurate the opening ceremony
of the Khelo India Youth Games 2023 in January 2024?
Trichy
Medurai
Chennai
Coimbatore
Q48: Which of the following is against globalisation?
Globalisation increases economic disparities.
Globalisation increases access to global markets.
Globalisation increases the diversification of products.
Globalisation increases the use of advanced technology.
Q49: Which initiative of the Government of India aims to integrate various
sub-schemes related to safety, security, and empowerment of women under an
umbrella scheme for greater efficiency and effectiveness in India?
Mission Nirbhaya
Mission Vatsalya
Mission Yukti
Mission Shakti
Q50: Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution guarantees
protection against arrest and detention in certain cases?
Article 22
Article 21
Article 23
Article 20
Report Card
Total Questions Attempted: 0
Correct Answers: 0
Wrong Answers: 0
Keep Practicing!
Why These Questions Matter
Studying real exam questions from recent shifts offers three advantages:
1. Pattern Recognition: Identify recurring topics like current affairs, Indian polity, or science.
2. Difficulty Benchmark: Understand if questions are fact-based, conceptual, or application-oriented.
3. Revision Efficiency: Prioritize high-weightage areas (e.g., government schemes, sports awards) for targeted preparation.
Pro Tip for Aspirants
Pair these questions with daily current affairs updates (January–December 2024) and static GK notes on history, geography, and the Indian Constitution. This combo will strengthen your speed and accuracy!
How to Use These Questions Effectively
-
Daily Practice: Solve 10-15 questions daily to retain facts.
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Mock Tests: Mix these questions with other shifts’ GK sets for a broader practice range.
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Analyze Mistakes: Revisit incorrect answers and clarify concepts immediately.
Final Thoughts
The RPF SI CBT 1 Exam demands consistent practice and strategic preparation. By working through these 50 GK questions, you’ll build confidence and adaptability for the actual test. Bookmark this post for quick revision, and pair it with our topic-wise guides to cover all bases!
Next Steps
After mastering this shift’s questions, explore our posts for
9th December, 2024 Shift 1, 2, 3, and 12th December Shift 1, 2, 3 and
others Shifts of 2024 RRB RRB SI CBT-1 Shifts
to gain a complete understanding of the exam. Consistent practice with real
questions is your best tool for success!