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RRB RPF SI CBT-I GK: 13th December, 2024 Shift 3| Practice Now

If you’re preparing for the RPF SI CBT 1 Exam 2025, practicing previous shifts’ questions can be a game-changer. This post shares the 50 General Knowledge (GK) questions from the total 120 questions asked in Shift 3 on 13th December 2024 in RRB RPF SI CBT-I to help you gauge the exam’s scope, difficulty, and trending topics. This targeted resource is your key to unlocking a competitive edge, sharpening your readiness and confidence for the actual test.

RRB RPF SI CBT-I GK: 13th December, 2024 Shift 3| Practice Now

Exam Overview (2024)

The RRB RPF SI CBT-1 exam evaluates candidates across 3 key subjects:

Subjects No. of Questions Marks
Basic Arithmetic 35 35
General Awareness 50 50
General Intelligence & Reasoning 35 35
Total 120 120

RRB RPF SI CBT-1 Paper: 13 December, 2024 Shift 3

  • Duration: 90 minutes.
  • Marks for Correct Answers: +1

  • Marks for Un-attempted Questions: 0

  • Negative Marking: 1/3 marks deducted for wrong answers.

  • Shift:1 (4:30 PM - 6:00 PM)
Practice Show All Answers
Q1: In September 2024, a team of the National Institute of Mountaineering and Adventure Sports (NIMAS), under the Ministry of Defence, scaled an unnamed and uncharted peak in Arunachal Pradesh and named it after the 6th Dalai Lama, Tsangyang Gyatso. This expedition was led by whom among the following?
Major SS Shekhawat
Colonel Ranveer Singh Jamwal
Colonel Narendra Kumar
Colonel Ashok Abbey

Q2:

Match the following Rulers with their Titles correctly.

Set-I Set-II
a. Tarikh-i-Sindh 1. Nizamuddin Bakshi
b. Tarikh-i-Kashmir 2. Arif kandhari
c. Tabaqat-i-Akbari 3. Mirza Masoom
d. Tarikh-i-Akbari 4. Mirza Haider
a -3; b - 4; c - 2; d - 1
a - 3; b - 4; c - 1; d - 2
a - 4; b - 3; c - 2; d - 1
a - 2; b - 3; c - 4; d - 1

Q3: In a federal country, disputes regarding federal matters are resolved by which of the following?
High Courts
Lower courts
Supreme Court
Union Government

Q4: How does the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) utilise the repo rate to control inflation?
By increasing the supply of money in the economy
By offering subsidies on loans for small and medium enterprises
By increasing the repo rate to make borrowing more expensive for banks
By decreasing the repo rate to encourage consumer spending

Q5: The approximate number of protein coding genes present on 23 pairs of chromosomes (human) is _______.
10,000 to 15,000
30,000 to 35,000
20,000 to 25,000
40,000 to 45,000

Q6: The mother of Jahangir was a Kachhwaha princess, a daughter of Rajput ruler of ___________.
Marwar
Amber
Mewar
Berar

Q7: Which of the following can be considered an example of an olfactory indicator?
China rose
Methyl orange
Turmeric
Onion

Q8: Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides that 'It shall be the duty of the Union and the State Public Service Commissions to conduct examinations for appointments to the services of the Union and the services of the State, respectively'?
Article 319
Article 318
Article 320
Article 322

Q9: Who among the following social reformers of Bengal earnestly fought for widow remarriages and girl education?
Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar
Nabinchandra Sen
Debendranath Tagore
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

Q10: Name the blood disorder which reduces the production of hemoglobin.
Hemochromatosis
Thalassemia
Polycythemia Vera
Myeloma

Q11: The Government of India launched the Smart Cities Mission on:
25-06-2015
26-06-2017
26-06-2014
25-06-2016

Q12: Who among the following was appointed as the new Executive Director of the Reserve Bank of India with effect from 1 July 2024?
Aviral Jain
Charulatha S Kar
Rajiv Ranjan
SC Murmu

Q13: In December 2023, scientists from the International Advanced Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy & New Materials (ARCI), Hyderabad, developed an ecofriendly solar cell material by replacing lead in perovskite with which of the following metals?
Lithium
Cerium
Magnesium
Gallium

Q14: Bolgatty Palace in Kochi, Kerala, India was built in the __________ architectural style.
Dutch
British
French
Portuguese

Q15: Which of the following is NOT the function of Money?
Eradicate Poverty
Medium of exchange
Unit of account
Store of Value

Q16: Which of the following is NOT a Gharana of classical Hindustani music?
Agra Gharana
Gwalior Gharana
Thanjavur Gharana
Kirana Gharana

Q17: Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution facilitates people to move freely throughout the territory of India?
Article 19(1)(b)
Article (19)(1)(d)
Article 19(1)(a)
Article (19)(1)(c)

Q18: Who among the following was the successor of Sultan Iltutmish in Delhi Sultanate?
Alauddin Khilji
Feroz Tughlaq
Alptekin
Raziya

Q19: Angkor Vat temple, which is dedicated to the god Vishnu, was built in the 12th century by __________, the king of Kambuja (Cambodia).
Indravarman I
Yasovarman I
Jayavarman II
Surya Varman II

Q20: Who among the following wrote the ‘Ganesha's Sweet Tooth’?
Kiran Desai
Amitav Ghosh
Sanjay Patel and Emily Haynes
Alka Joshi

Q21: Which of the following is Disinvestment?
Globalisation of the public sector undertakings by selling off the part of the equity of PSUs to the public is known as disinvestment.
Privatisation of the public sector undertakings by selling off the part of the equity of PSUs to the public is known as disinvestment.
Liberalisation of the public sector undertakings by selling off the part of the equity of PSUs to the public is known as disinvestment.
Liberalisation of the private sector undertakings by selling off the part of the equity of PSUs to the public is known as disinvestment.

Q22: As on 30 September 2024, the Asian Development Bank (ADB) has how many members in total?
19
69
31
49

Q23: Under which part of the Indian Constitution are the Fundamental Duties placed?
Part III
Part IVA
Part I
Part IV

Q24: How many sporting disciplines were conducted during the 37th National Games 2023?
30
55
23
43

Q25: An Indian woman Social reformer, _____________ is credited with the establishment of ‘Bharat Stree Mandal’ in 1910.
Savitri Bai Phule
Sarlabala Devi Chaudhrani
Usha Mehta
Sarojini Naidu

Q26: The 2nd top layers of a rainforest, formed by the thick leaves of tall trees is known as:
understory layer
emergent layer
forest floor
canopy layer

Q27: Which of the following types of farming is largely confined to the regions having annual rainfall less than 75 cm in India?
Wetland Farming
Dryland Farming
Plantation Agriculture
Moist Farming

Q28: According to the Census of India 2011, what was the percentage increase in female literacy in India during 2001-2011?
9%
22%
5%
14%

Q29: CH Vijayashankar, who was appointed as Governor of Meghalaya in July 2024, was the former minister of the state of _____.
Bihar
Karnataka
Rajasthan
Gujarat

Q30: Which of the following states has the highest literacy rate among females in India according to Census 2011?
Kerala
Mizoram
Himachal Pradesh
Goa

Q31: The Khilafat Movement (Group) was launched to protest against which of the following?
Jallianwala Bagh massacre
Partition of Bengal
Rowlatt Act
Dissolution of the Ottoman Empire

Q32: Which of the following experiences a unique 'chillai-kalan' winter season?
Kashmir
Assam
Tamil Nadu
Kerala

Q33: Which of the following is the oldest landmass of India?
Indian Island
The Peninsula Plateau
The Indus - Ganga plains
The Indian Desert

Q34: The successor organisation to the General Agreement on Trade and Tariff (GATT) was established in _________.
1991
1995
1948
1981

Q35: In September 2023, Kerala received recognition from the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) for conducting TrueNat tests to detect infected cases of which of the following viruses?
Tilapia
Chandipura
Zika
Nipah

Q36: NASA astronaut Sunita Williams arrived at the International Space Station in June 2024 with which other astronaut from NASA?
Frank Rubio
Christopher Williams
Bob Hines
Barry Wilmore

Q37: What is the correct definition of ‘head count ratio’?
The proportion of population below the poverty line
The number of the people below the poverty line
The proportion of the marginal poor in the economy
The proportion of the poorest people in the country

Q38: Air Fest 2022, an annual show showcasing manoeuvres of planes and helicopters in the arsenal of the Indian Air Force (IAF), was organised at which of the following places in 2022?
Patiala
Nagpur
Pune
Jodhpur

Q39: With which of the following is the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana related?
An insurance scheme offering vehicle insurance cover for accidents due to any reason.
An insurance scheme offering life insurance cover for death due to any reason.
An insurance scheme offering education for girls.
An insurance scheme offering home insurance cover for accidents due to any reason.

Q40: Which of the following states is known for Bihu music?
Assam
Punjab
Rajasthan
Tamil Nadu

Q41: Which of the following commercially important trees is found in the Tropical Evergreen Forests?
Ebony
Pine
Oak
Teak

Q42: Select the INCORRECT option with respect to joint military exercises of India with other nations.
UAE - Dharma Guardian
Uzbekistan - Dustlik
UK - Ajeya Warrior
USA - Tiger Triumph

Q43: Which of the following hosted the 'Arogya Manthan' event in 2023?
Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
Pragati Maidan, New Delhi
Taj Hotel, Mumbai
Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi

Q44: Select the correct statement about refractive index from among the following.
Refractive index and reflection are the same phenomenon.
The ratio of the speed of light in vacuum to its speed in a specific medium is called the refractive index.
The ratio of the speed of light in a specific medium to the speed of light in vacuum is called the refractive index.
Refractive index is the sum of the angle of incidence and the angle of refraction.

Q45: Which of the following cases established the Right to Privacy as a fundamental right in the Constitution of India?
Minerva Mills Ltd. vs Union Of India
Golaknath vs State Of Punjab
SR Bommai vs Union of India
Justice KS Puttaswamy (Retd) vs the Union of India

Q46: Subject to the provisions of Article ____, there shall be a Public Service Commission for the Union and a Public Service Commission for each State.
316
317
318
315

Q47: What provision of the Indian Constitution guarantees the independence of the judiciary?
Directive Principles of State Policy
Fundamental Rights
Preamble
Judicial Review

Q48: Which economic system has exclusive public ownership to the forces/means of production?
Socialism
Capitalism
Totalitarianism
Mixed economy

Q49: The SI unit of electric charge is:
ampere
coulomb
hertz
ohm

Q50: What is the name of India's first private launchpad and mission control centre located at Satish Dhawan Space Launch Centre from where ‘Agnibaan – SorTeD’ was launched in May 2024?
Agnikul
Dhanush
Agnisthal
Dhara

Report Card

Total Questions Attempted: 0

Correct Answers: 0

Wrong Answers: 0

Keep Practicing!


Why These Questions Matter

Studying real exam questions from recent shifts offers three advantages:

1. Pattern Recognition: Identify recurring topics like current affairs, Indian polity, or science.

2. Difficulty Benchmark: Understand if questions are fact-based, conceptual, or application-oriented.

3. Revision Efficiency: Prioritize high-weightage areas (e.g., government schemes, sports awards) for targeted preparation.

Pro Tip for Aspirants

Pair these questions with daily current affairs updates (January–December 2024) and static GK notes on history, geography, and the Indian Constitution. This combo will strengthen your speed and accuracy!

How to Use These Questions Effectively

  • Daily Practice: Solve 10-15 questions daily to retain facts.

  • Mock Tests: Mix these questions with other shifts’ GK sets for a broader practice range.

  • Analyze Mistakes: Revisit incorrect answers and clarify concepts immediately.

Final Thoughts

The RPF SI CBT 1 Exam demands consistent practice and strategic preparation. By working through these 50 GK questions, you’ll build confidence and adaptability for the actual test. Bookmark this post for quick revision, and pair it with our topic-wise guides to cover all bases!

Next Steps

After mastering this shift’s questions, explore our posts for 13th December, 2024 Shift 1, 2, and 8th December Shift 1, 2, 3 and others Shifts of 2024 RRB RRB SI CBT-1 Shifts to gain a complete understanding of the exam. Consistent practice with real questions is your best tool for success!