If you’re preparing for the RPF SI CBT 1 Exam 2025, practicing previous shifts’ questions can be a game-changer. This post shares the 50 General Knowledge (GK) questions from the total 120 questions asked in Shift 2 on 13th December 2024 in RRB RPF SI CBT-I to help you gauge the exam’s scope, difficulty, and trending topics. This targeted resource is your key to unlocking a competitive edge, sharpening your readiness and confidence for the actual test.
Exam Overview (2024)
The RRB RPF SI CBT-1 exam evaluates candidates across 3 key subjects:
| Subjects | No. of Questions | Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Basic Arithmetic | 35 | 35 |
| General Awareness | 50 | 50 |
| General Intelligence & Reasoning | 35 | 35 |
| Total | 120 | 120 |
RRB RPF SI CBT-1 Paper: 13 December, 2024 Shift 2
- Duration: 90 minutes.
-
Marks for Correct Answers: +1
-
Marks for Un-attempted Questions: 0
-
Negative Marking: 1/3 marks deducted for wrong answers.
- Shift:1 (12:30 PM - 2:00 PM)
Practice
Show All Answers
Q1: When was the Disinvestment Commission established in India?
1994
1991
1996
1998
Q2: What is the full form of the NAMASTE Scheme, to be implemented for a
period of 3 years from FY 2023-24 to FY 2025-26?
National Aid for Mechanised Sanitation Technology Enhancement
National Assistance for Manual Sanitation and Treatment Endeavors
National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem
National Approach for Manual Sanitation and Treatment Enhancement
Q3: Who among the following started a Marathi fortnightly-Newspaper
'Mooknayak' in 1920?
Swami Acchutanand
MC Rajah
Dr BR Ambedkar
Mahatma Gandhi
Q4: Which of the following statements is true about India’s Chandrayaan –3
mission?
It was launched using GSLV.
RAMBHA and ChaSTE were amongst its rover payloads.
Propulsion Module placed the lander module in 100 km lunar orbit.
LISA and LRA were amongst its lander payloads.
Q5: The Mass Drug Administration Campaign to eliminate Lymphatic Filariasis
is being carried out by the Government in around 63 district in 6 states.
Which of the following is NOT one of those states?
Jharkhand
Karnataka
Telangana
Chhattisgarh
Q6: The annual precipitation in Meghalaya exceeds 400 cm, while in Ladakh
and western Rajasthan, it is less than 10 cm. Based on the statement, which
of the following is the pattern of annual precipitation in India?
More in the northern parts
Highly variable, with significant differences between regions
Uniform across the country
More in the western parts
Q7: Which of the following is a common plant species found in tropical
evergreen forests?
Mahogany
Acacia
Teak
Cactus
Q8: Who among the following kings became the follower of the Jainism towards
the later stages of his life?
Kunal
Bindusara
Chandragupta Maurya
Ashoka
Q9: What is the primary role of the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Development (NABARD) in the Indian economy?
Financing rural infrastructure and supporting agricultural development
Providing microloans to urban enterprises
Direct lending to industrial projects
Managing India's foreign exchange
Q10: Arrange the following acids in increasing order of acidic strength.
III<II<I
III<I<II
II<III<I
I<II<III
Q11: Dr. YS Rawat was appointed as the Director General of which of the
following organisations in December 2023?
Geological Survey of India
Zoological Survey of India
Botanical Survey of India
Archaeological Survey of India
Q12: Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding basic food
groups?
Include at least one or a minimum number of servings from each food group in
each meal.
Cereals should supply more than 75% of the total Kcal/Calories.
Include uncooked vegetables and fruits in the meals.
Include at least one serving of milk to ensure a supply of calcium.
Q13: Which amendment of the Indian Constitution asserted a list of
'Fundamental Duties'?
40
43
41
42
Q14: Which plan sets targets to cover all major aspects of the economy?
Partial plan
Imperative plan
Comprehensive plan
Global plan
Q15: In which of the following years was the first session of the All India
Kisan Sabha held?
1936
1928
1947
1925
Q16: Who wrote 'Masterpieces of Vijayanagara Art'?
RK Narayan
Pranab Chandra Roy
Dr. V Ganapati Sthapati
Dr. Sindigi Rajasekhara
Q17: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Money Bill
in the Parliament?
Money Bill can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Money Bill can be introduced in either of the Houses of the Parliament.
Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Lok Sabha.
Money Bill can be introduced in the Rajya Sabha only.
Q18: Who among the following was the Architect of the 'Basilica of Bom
Jesus' in India?
Erbert Baker and Smith
Julião Simão and Domingos Fernandes
George Wittet and Goerge Bush
William Emerson
Q19: Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose International Airport is situated in which
of the following cities?
New Delhi
Chennai
Mumbai
Kolkata
Q20: According to Census 2011, which union territory has the lowest
population?
Dadra and Nagar Haveli
Lakshadweep
Chandigarh
Daman and Diu
Q21: Which of the following Parts of the Indian Constitution deals with the
provision regarding composition, appointment and removal of members along
with the independence, power and function of the UPSC?
XIII
XIV
XI
XII
Q22: Arrange the following rulers of the Sharqi dynasty in the chronological
order.
Hussain Shah < Ibrahim Shah < Mubarak Shah < Mahmud Shah
Mahmud Shah < Hussain Shah < Mubarak Shah < Ibrahim Shah
Hussain Shah < Mubarak Shah < Ibrahim Shah < Mahmud Shah
Mubarak Shah < Ibrahim Shah < Mahmud Shah < Hussain Shah
Q23: In September 2024, V Satish Kumar took additional charge as Chairman of
which of the following oil companies?
Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)
Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL)
Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL)
Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL)
Q24: Which of the following natural heterogeneous polysaccharides present in
the middle lamella strengthens the adjacent plant cells and provides
cohesion to plant tissues?
Chitin
Algin
Pectin
Mucin
Q25: In which of the following years did Tata Tea acquire the UK-based
Tetly?
2001
1999
2000
1998
Q26: Who among the following was the first person to discuss the concept of
the poverty line in pre-independent India?
Dadabhai Naoroji
Surendranath Banerjee
Balgangadhar Tilak
Annie Bessant
Q27: Which Article discusses people born in the Indian province, people with
either of their parents born in India and people who typically became Indian
residents for five or more years instantaneously before the implementation
of the Constitution?
Article 8
Article 4
Article 10
Article 5
Q28: Who among the following exceptional musicians, unable to complete
formal schooling, emerged as a musical genius and innovator, credited with
inventing the Trimukhi, Panchamukhi, Saptamukhi, and Navamukhi ragas?
M Balamuralikrishna
MS Subbulakshmi
TM Krishna
L Subramaniam
Q29: Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution states that
no person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being
informed?
Article 20
Article 21
Article 19
Article 22
Q30: Consider the motion of a rigid body which is pivoted or fixed in some
way. The possible motion for such a system is best described by:
circular motion
combination of rotation and translation
translation
rotation
Q31: As per World Bank observation, rising rural wages and falling food
prices brought about by agricultural intensification in the _______ and
______ helped to alleviate rural poverty in India.
1940s; 1950s
1970s; 1980s
1950s; 1960s
1960s; 1970s
Q32: How many medals did the Team of Jammu and Kashmir win in the Khelo
India Youth Games 2023?
11
7
5
9
Q33: According to which of the following Articles of the Indian
Constitution, there shall be a Comptroller and Auditor-General of India who
shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal?
Article 148
Article 153
Article 145
Article 157
Q34: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about aneuploids?
One or more chromosomes of a chromosome set either missing or having more
copies
Unequal distribution of chromosomes to opposite poles
Usually results from irregular meiotic division
Organisms having more than two sets of chromosomes in each cell
Q35: ____________ is the total value of goods and services produced in a
country in addition to the income from abroad.
Gross Domestic Product
National Product/National Income
Net National Value
Average Product Income
Q36: Which of the following organisations became a member of G20 in 2023
under India’s presidency?
African Union
The Quad group
South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation
Association of South East Asian Nations
Q37: What is the name of the first warship of the Anti-Submarine Warfare
Shallow Craft (ASW SWC) project under construction by CSL, Kochi whose first
Keel laying ceremony was undertaken on 30 Aug 22?
Mangrol
Malwan
Arnala
Mahe
Q38: Which of the following river systems is characterised by fixed course,
absence of meanders, and non-perennial flow?
Ganga
Brahmaputra
Peninsular
Himalayan
Q39: Who among the following are involved in the election of the President
of India? 1. Elected members of the Lok Sabha 2. All members of the Rajya
Sabha 3. Elected members of the State Assembly 4. Elected members of the
State Legislative Council
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
Q40: Under the reign of which of the following Mughal Emperors did Bahadur
Shah attack Chittor?
Aurangzeb
Shah Jahan
Humayun
Babur
Q41: As per the Census 2011, which of the following north-eastern states has
the highest literacy rate?
Tripura
Nagaland
Meghalaya
Assam
Q42: In August 2024, the Indian Air Force (IAF) gave clearance to which
organisations to produce 200 Astra air-to-air missiles?
DRDO and HAL
DRDO and ISRO
BDL and HAL
DRDO and BDL
Q43: In the context of rural development, what is a critical challenge
associated with traditional rural credit systems in India?
High reliance on informal sources leads to exploitative interest rates and
debt traps for farmers
Formal banking institutions entirely replace informal lenders, eliminating
local financial practices
They provide too much credit to rural households, leading to inflation
Interest rates are uniformly low, discouraging savings
Q44: As on 30th September 2024, how many member countries are in the World
Bank?
158
150
189
171
Q45: CSpace, India's first government-backed Over-The-Top (OTT) platform
which addresses challenges in selecting and distributing content, was
launched in which of the following states of India in March 2024?
Bihar
West Bengal
Kerala
Maharashtra
Q46: The resistances of the filament of two bulbs are $R_1$ and $R_2$. If
both of these are connected in parallel, then the ratio of loss of power
will be:
$\frac{R_2}{R_1}$
$\frac{R_1}{(R_1 + R_2)}$
$\frac{(R_1 + R_2)}{R_2}$
$\frac{R_1}{R_2}$
Q47: When was a member of the British Cabinet appointed as a 'Secretary of
State for India' and made responsible for all matters related to the
governance of India?
1919
1911
1929
1858
Q48: Which Indian bowler topped the chart of most wickets in the T20 World
Cup 2024, along with Fazalhaq Farooqi of Afghanistan?
Axar Patel
Mohammed Siraj
Jasprit Bumrah
Arshdeep Singh
Q49: Which of the following states is known for the dance form Jhoori which
is connected with Jhoomar and involves both men and women singing and
dancing?
Punjab
Assam
Himachal Pradesh
Rajasthan
Q50: The third battle of Panipat was fought between the Maratha Empire and
(the) _____.
Durrani Empire
Sur Empire
Timurids
Uzbek
Report Card
Total Questions Attempted: 0
Correct Answers: 0
Wrong Answers: 0
Keep Practicing!
Why These Questions Matter
Studying real exam questions from recent shifts offers three advantages:
1. Pattern Recognition: Identify recurring topics like current affairs, Indian polity, or science.
2. Difficulty Benchmark: Understand if questions are fact-based, conceptual, or application-oriented.
3. Revision Efficiency: Prioritize high-weightage areas (e.g., government schemes, sports awards) for targeted preparation.
Pro Tip for Aspirants
Pair these questions with daily current affairs updates (January–December 2024) and static GK notes on history, geography, and the Indian Constitution. This combo will strengthen your speed and accuracy!
How to Use These Questions Effectively
-
Daily Practice: Solve 10-15 questions daily to retain facts.
-
Mock Tests: Mix these questions with other shifts’ GK sets for a broader practice range.
-
Analyze Mistakes: Revisit incorrect answers and clarify concepts immediately.
Final Thoughts
The RPF SI CBT 1 Exam demands consistent practice and strategic preparation. By working through these 50 GK questions, you’ll build confidence and adaptability for the actual test. Bookmark this post for quick revision, and pair it with our topic-wise guides to cover all bases!
Next Steps
After mastering this shift’s questions, explore our posts for
13th December, 2024 Shift 1, 3, and 9th December Shift 1, 2, 3 and others
Shifts of 2024 RRB RRB SI CBT-1 Shifts
to gain a complete understanding of the exam. Consistent practice with real
questions is your best tool for success!