If you’re preparing for the RPF SI CBT 1 Exam 2025, practicing previous shifts’ questions can be a game-changer. This post shares the 50 General Knowledge (GK) questions from the total 120 questions asked in Shift 1 on 13th December 2024 in RRB RPF SI CBT-I to help you gauge the exam’s scope, difficulty, and trending topics. This targeted resource is your key to unlocking a competitive edge, sharpening your readiness and confidence for the actual test.
Exam Overview (2024)
The RRB RPF SI CBT-1 exam evaluates candidates across 3 key subjects:
| Subjects | No. of Questions | Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Basic Arithmetic | 35 | 35 |
| General Awareness | 50 | 50 |
| General Intelligence & Reasoning | 35 | 35 |
| Total | 120 | 120 |
RRB RPF SI CBT-1 Paper: 13 December, 2024 Shift 1
- Duration: 90 minutes.
-
Marks for Correct Answers: +1
-
Marks for Un-attempted Questions: 0
-
Negative Marking: 1/3 marks deducted for wrong answers.
- Shift:1 (9:00 AM - 10:30 AM)
Practice
Show All Answers
Q1: What is the nature of the 'PM Fasal Bima Yojna (PMFBY)' for the
participating States/UTs and farmers?
Mandatory for both States/UTs and also for farmers
Voluntary for both States/UTs and also for farmers
Mandatory for States/UTs and voluntary for farmers
Voluntary for States/UTs and mandatory for farmers
Q2: According to Census 2011, which northeastern state has the highest
literacy rate?
Tripura
Meghalaya
Mizoram
Sikkim
Q3: Which state government launched the 'Yuva Nidhi Scheme' for providing
financial aid to unemployed youth?
Karnataka
Kerala
Uttar Pradesh
Madhya Pradesh
Q4: Select the correct sequence of colour observed when white light gets
dispersed through a prism.
Violet, Blue, Green and Yellow
Blue, Green, Yellow and Orange
Blue, Indigo, Green and Yellow
Green, Indigo, Orange and Red
Q5: What is the main objective of Financial Inclusion?
To extend financial services at reasonable cost to the large hitherto
unserved population of the country.
To add every person in the country as part of the National Mission for
Financial Inclusion.
To focus on opening of an account in a Nationalised Bank.
To extend digital banking services to the population of the country.
Q6: What is the name of the seventh Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water
Craft (ASW SWC) launched by the Indian Navy in October 2024?
Akash
Abhay
Arjun
Ajay
Q7: Who was considered as the viceroy of Muhammad Ghori and overall
commander of the army in India?
Qutbuddin Aibak
Bakhtiyar Khalji
Nasiruddin Qabacha
Taj al-Din Yildiz
Q8: In March 2024, who among the following assumed the charge of Chairman of
National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)?
Kishor Makwana
Kunwar Singh
Lama Lobzang
Antar Singh Arya
Q9: Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the composition of
the Rajya Sabha?
Article 80
Article 90
Article 85
Article 95
Q10: Which law states that if a body is at rest or moving at a constant
speed in a straight line, it will remain at rest or keep moving in a
straight line at constant speed unless it is acted upon by a force?
Newton's second law
Dalton's law
Newton's third law
Newton's first law
Q11: Which of the following pairs is INCORRECT with reference to dams and
their related states?
Indira Sagar – Rajasthan
Karjan – Gujarat
Pong – Himachal Pradesh
Koyna – Maharashtra
Q12: The general debate of the 79th session of the United Nations General
Assembly started on which date?
12 September 2024
28 September 2024
2 September 2024
24 September 2024
Q13: Chromosome number (2n) of maize is _____.
20
15
18
10
Q14: The cytoplasmic strands that connect one cell to the other are known as
________.
Spindle Fibre
Endoplasmic Reticulum
Centriole
Plasmodesmata
Q15: Who among the following was the chairman of the Constituent Assembly of
India?
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Dr. B R Ambedkar
Gopal Das Ambaidas Desai
K M Munshi
Q16: Which of the following battles was fought in the year 1191 AD?
The Battle of Chandawar
The First Battle of Tarain
The Battle of Kasahrada
The First Battle of Panipat
Q17: On which date did the Prime Minister of India Narendra Modi visit
Ukraine, which was the first ever visit by an Indian Prime Minister to
Ukraine since 1992?
13 August 2024
30 August 2024
23 August 2024
03 August 2024
Q18: Which one of following countries is NOT included in the Citizenship
(Amendment) Act, 2019?
Afghanistan
Bangladesh
Pakistan
Bhutan
Q19: Indian political activist and advocate for women’s rights,
____________, had unfurled the first version of the Indian national flag at
the International Socialist Congress held at Stuttgart, Germany.
Sucheta Kripalani
Sarojini Naidu
Bhikaji Cama
Annie Besant
Q20: Which of the following is the formula for the consumption function?
C = \(\overline{C}\) / cYD
C = \(\overline{C}\) + cYD
C = \(\overline{C}\) ⨯ cYD
C = \(\overline{C}\) − cYD
Q21: Which of the following is a secondary function of the commercial banks?
Performing agency functions
Opening fixed deposits
Opening of current account deposits
Advancing loans
Q22: From the given options, which Indian state has a higher literacy rate
than the other three states as per the census of 2011?
Mizoram
Himachal Pradesh
Tripura
Kerala
Q23: Who among the following returned the honourary knighthood title to mark
the protest against Jallianwala Bagh incident?
Jawaharlal Nehru
Dadabhai Naoroji
Rabindra Nath Tagore
Mahatma Gandhi
Q24: Which of the following is NOT a tributary of the Godavari river?
Purna
Pravara
Kabini
Manjra
Q25: The portion of agricultural produce, which is sold in the market by
farmers, is called ________.
marketed surplus
gross surplus
product surplus
wage surplus
Q26: Who among the following is related to ‘khayal’ in classical Hindustani
music?
Ziauddin Barani
Abu’l Hasan al Hujwiri
Amir Hasan Sijzi
Amir Khusrau
Q27: When was St. Francis Church building constructed in Kochi?
1503
1616
1609
1510
Q28: Which of the following statements is NOT true about the High Altitude
Pseudo Satellite (HAPS) that was successfully tested in India in February
2024?
It was developed by CSIR National Aerospace Laboratories.
HAPS operate much closer to Earth, resulting in lower latency.
The flights are carried on in the troposphere.
It does not require rocket to launch.
Q29: Which of the following periods succeeds the Palaeolithic period?
Chalcolithic
Mesolithic
Neolithic
Iron Age
Q30: Which of the following is a direct impact of rural infrastructure
development on the agricultural sector?
Rural infrastructure development has no significant impact on agriculture
Decrease in agricultural productivity due to the diversion of resources
Enhanced agricultural productivity through better irrigation, storage and
transport facilities
Increased urban migration due to improved rural infrastructure
Q31: Who among the following emphasised and propagated that the ‘Vedanta was
the religion of all and NOT of the Hindus alone’?
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
Swami Dayanand Saraswati
Swami Vivekananda
Mahadev Govind Ranade
Q32: MATSYA 6000, a part of India’s Samudrayaan Project, is what kind of
object/instrument?
Submarine
Oil mineral explorer
Manned submersible
Underwater autonomous vehicle
Q33: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with respect to the
India’s Tax Reforms Committee (TRC), 1991?
The TRC suggested aggregation of minor’s income, other than wage income,
with the income of the parents.
The committee suggested a phased reduction of the corporate tax to 10% and
continuation of surcharge on corporate tax.
The committee recommended the abolition of tax concessions, rebates and
allowances, under various incentives for saving schemes.
The TRC suggested a moderate flat tax rate on long term capital gains after
due indexation for inflation.
Q34: Who among the following historical musicians is credited with
formulating the Sarali Varisa and Sapta Tala Alankaras in the Carnatic
Music?
Thyagaraja
Muthuswami Dikshitar
Annamacharya
Purandara Dasa
Q35: Who among the following was the last Pallava ruler?
Adityavarman
Nariptunga
Nandivarman
Aparajitavarman
Q36: In which of the following years were Union Territories (UT) introduced
in India?
1956
1952
1950
1960
Q37: Poisson's equation, which is often used to describe the elastic
properties of a material, is represented by which Greek letter?
Tau
Nu
Epsilon
Kappa
Q38: Which of the following is commonly known as the 'Four D's disease'
caused by severe deficiency of Vitamin B3?
Pellagra
Goitre
Hypocalcemia
Beri Beri
Q39: The Wildlife Protection Act, which provides the main legal framework
for conservation and protection of wildlife in India, was enacted in the
year:
1972
1974
1981
1986
Q40: In March 2024, Nayab Singh Saini was sworn in as the new Chief Minister
of which of the following states of India?
Haryana
Madhya Pradesh
Tamil Nadu
Assam
Q41: The provision of ‘Prohibition of Employment of Children in Hazardous
Jobs’ is reflected in which of the following Fundamental Rights of the
Indian Constitution?
Right to Constitutional Remedies
Right to Freedom
Right to Equality
Right against Exploitation
Q42: In which of the following types of vegetation would we find species
like ebony, mahogany, and rosewood?
Tropical deciduous forests
Montane forests
Tropical evergreen forests
Mangrove forests
Q43: In October 2023, India began producing 'reference' fuel, joining a
select league of nations. What is the octane number of reference fuel?
87
67
97
77
Q44: How many sports persons received the Arjuna Awards for outstanding
performances in Sports and Games 2023?
34
31
21
26
Q45: In which of the following years did Kanshiram Found Bahujan Samaj
Party?
1986
1990
1980
1984
Q46: On which river system is the National Waterway 1, developed by the
Indian government, built?
Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri
Ganges-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system(from Haldia to Allahabad)
Kottapurma-Kollam, Udyogamandal and Champakkara canals
Stretches of Godavari and Krishna rivers
Q47: In which of the following years was ‘A Brush with Life: An
Autobiography' written?
2000
1908
1997
1856
Q48: Director General Rakesh Pal, AVSM, PTM, TM is the ___________________
Director General of Indian Coast Guard.
22nd
20th
27th
25th
Q49: Which Article of the Indian Constitution is related to the appointment
of 'Attorney General of India'?
Article 76
Article 73
Article 74
Article 75
Q50: Which Indian cricket player became the Player of the Series in the two
test matches cricket series against Bangladesh, played in September-October
2024?
Ravichandran Ashwin
Yashasvi Jaiswal
Jasprit Bumrah
Rishabh Pant
Report Card
Total Questions Attempted: 0
Correct Answers: 0
Wrong Answers: 0
Keep Practicing!
Why These Questions Matter
Studying real exam questions from recent shifts offers three advantages:
1. Pattern Recognition: Identify recurring topics like current affairs, Indian polity, or science.
2. Difficulty Benchmark: Understand if questions are fact-based, conceptual, or application-oriented.
3. Revision Efficiency: Prioritize high-weightage areas (e.g., government schemes, sports awards) for targeted preparation.
Pro Tip for Aspirants
Pair these questions with daily current affairs updates (January–December 2024) and static GK notes on history, geography, and the Indian Constitution. This combo will strengthen your speed and accuracy!
How to Use These Questions Effectively
-
Daily Practice: Solve 10-15 questions daily to retain facts.
-
Mock Tests: Mix these questions with other shifts’ GK sets for a broader practice range.
-
Analyze Mistakes: Revisit incorrect answers and clarify concepts immediately.
Final Thoughts
The RPF SI CBT 1 Exam demands consistent practice and strategic preparation. By working through these 50 GK questions, you’ll build confidence and adaptability for the actual test. Bookmark this post for quick revision, and pair it with our topic-wise guides to cover all bases!
Next Steps
After mastering this shift’s questions, explore our posts for
13th December, 2024 Shift 2, 3, and 9th December Shift 1, 2, 3 and others
Shifts of 2024 RRB RRB SI CBT-1 Shifts
to gain a complete understanding of the exam. Consistent practice with real
questions is your best tool for success!