If you’re preparing for the RPF SI CBT 1 Exam 2025, practicing previous shifts’ questions can be a game-changer. This post shares the 50 General Knowledge (GK) questions from the total 120 questions asked in Shift 3 on 12th December 2024 in RRB RPF SI CBT-I to help you gauge the exam’s scope, difficulty, and trending topics. This targeted resource is your key to unlocking a competitive edge, sharpening your readiness and confidence for the actual test.
Exam Overview (2024)
The RRB RPF SI CBT-1 exam evaluates candidates across 3 key subjects:
| Subjects | No. of Questions | Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Basic Arithmetic | 35 | 35 |
| General Awareness | 50 | 50 |
| General Intelligence & Reasoning | 35 | 35 |
| Total | 120 | 120 |
RRB RPF SI CBT-1 Paper: 12 December, 2024 Shift 3
- Duration: 90 minutes.
-
Marks for Correct Answers: +1
-
Marks for Un-attempted Questions: 0
-
Negative Marking: 1/3 marks deducted for wrong answers.
- Shift:1 (4:30 PM - 6:00 PM)
Practice
Show All Answers
Q1: Which of the following international sports event was NOT held in the
year 2023?
ICC Mens’s Cricket World Cup
Commonwealth Games
World Wrestling Championship
Asian Games
Q2: Which sensitive dye turns yellow in the presence of acid with pH between
6.0 – 7.6?
Alizarin yellow R
Thymolphthalein
Methyl orange
Bromothymol blue
Q3: Quwwat-al-islam mosque is nearest to which of the following historical
monuments?
Humayun Tomb
Qutub Minar
Tughlakabad Fort
Jama Masjid
Q4: Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for an independent
Election Commission for the ‘superintendence, directions and control of the
electoral roll and the conduct of the elections of India?
Article 324
Article 322
Article 333
Article 321
Q5: The Central Goods and Services Tax (Second Amendment) Bill, 2023
increased the age limit for the president of the Tribunal from ______.
65 to 70 years
60 to 65 years
67 to 70 years
65 to 67 years
Q6: Which adulterant is added to increase the solids-not-fat (SNF) content
in milk and the yield of dairy products?
Hydrogen peroxide
Maltodextrin
Potassium bicarbonate
Melamine
Q7: Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956 was adopted in which of the following
five-year plans?
3rd Five-Year Plan
4th Five-Year Plan
2nd Five-Year Plan
1st Five-Year Plan
Q8: Which of the following periods was considered as the second phase of the
Green Revolution in India?
Mid-1960s to mid-1970s
1960s to 1970s
Mid-1970s to mid-1980s
1970s to 1980s
Q9: Which of the following is also known as congenital ovarian hypoplasia
syndrome which is found only in females?
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
Usher syndrome
Turner syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome
Q10: As a reaction to the Muslim fundamentalism, the Hindu Mahasabha was
founded in which of the following years?
1917
1915
1911
1920
Q11: Which of the following styles of Thumri singing is meant to be fairly
slow and staid?
Punjab
Benaras
Assam
Agra
Q12: In reference to air transport of India, what is the full form of AERA?
Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India
Agriculture Economic Regulatory Authority
Agriculture Economic Regulatory Authority of India
Aviation Economic Regulatory Authority of India
Q13: Who among the following is the Chairman of the Defence Research and
Development Organisation (DRDO) as on December, 2023?
Dr B K Das
Dr Upendra Kumar Singh
Dr Y Sreenivas Rao
Dr Samir V Kamat
Q14: A method for measuring atmospheric pressure was first devised by _____.
Torricelli
Bernoulli
Pascal
Archimedes
Q15: Who was serving as the Managing Director of the International Monetary
Fund (IMF) since 1 October 2019 and has been selected by the IMF’s Executive
Board to serve for a second five-year term, starting 1 October 2024?
Gita Gopinath
Kristalina Georgieva
Kenji Okamura
Antoinette Sayeh
Q16: How does the Indian Government finance its fiscal deficit?
By printing more currency
By borrowing from domestic and international sources
By increasing taxes on essential goods
By reducing subsidies
Q17: Which of the following is the primary reason for the high literacy rate
in Kerala?
Because of effective literacy programmes and emphasis on education
Because of large number of universities
Because of high population density
Because of industrial development
Q18: Which of the following winds govern the climate of India during winter?
Westerlies
Southwest monsoon winds
Northeast monsoon winds
Northeast trade winds
Q19: Which of the following is NOT one of the broad objectives of NITI
Aayog?
To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and
aggregate these progressively at higher levels
To design strategic and long-term policy and programme frameworks and
initiatives, and monitor their progress and their efficacy
To promote initiatives like Make in India, Skill India, Startup India,
Standup India, etc.
To evolve a shared vision of national development priorities, sectors and
strategies with the active involvement of the states in the light of
national objectives
Q20: Who assumed charge as Minister of Earth Sciences in June 2024 in the
newly formed union cabinet?
Virendra Kumar
L Murugan
Jitendra Singh
Jadhav Prataprao Ganpat Rao
Q21: Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with
the administration of Union Territories?
Article 260
Article 245
Article 255
Article 239
Q22: Which of the following schemes was launched by Rajnath Singh to promote
innovations in critical and strategic defence technologies, during
DefConnect 2024 in New Delhi on 4 March 2024?
SMRITI
SAMSKRUTI
STUTI
ADITI
Q23: Qutb ud-Din Aibak was fond of which of the following outdoor sports?
Wrestling
Hockey
Kabaddi
Polo
Q24: In 1309, who invaded the Kakatiya kingdom?
Ballala Deva
Vir Pandya
Malik Kafur
Sunder Pandya
Q25: The Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna system is composed of which of the
following main sub-basins?
Bhagirathi and Alaknanda
Alaknanda and Gandak
Bhagirathi and Yamuna
Yamuna and Ramganga
Q26: In November 2023, generic drugs for four rare diseases were made
available in India, out of which 'Nitisinone' is used for the treatment of:
Wilson’s Disease
Dravet and Lennox-Gastaut syndromes
Gaucher's Disease
Tyrosinemia Type 1
Q27: Which of the following games made its maiden participation at National
Games 2023?
Yachting
Wushu
Beach Handball
Squash
Q28: Which of the following is NOT a function of the Governor of the State?
Assenting to bills passed by the State Legislature
Nomination of members to the State Legislative Council
Appointing the District Collectors
Appointing the Chief Minister
Q29: Which initiative was launched by the Union Education Minister to
promote digital skill development among rural youth, particularly women, in
2023?
Digi-Skills
Skills on the Go
Digi-Skill Drive
Skills on Wheels
Q30: Which of the following articles of Indian Constitution deals with the
executive power of the Union?
Article 55
Article 52
Article 54
Article 53
Q31: Which of the following does the term 'household' mean according to the
Census?
A group of related individuals living together under one roof
A group of unrelated individuals residing in the same locality
A group of persons engaged in common economic activities
A group of persons who share a common kitchen and take meals together
Q32: The type of stress that acts coplanar along a given cross-section of
the material is defined as _.
Shear stress
Radial stress
Compressive stress
Bulk stress
Q33: If the court finds that a person is holding office but not entitled to
hold that office, it issues the writ of _____________________ and restricts
that person from acting as an office holder.
Mandamus
Prohibition
Quo-Warranto
Habeas Corpus
Q34: 'Nada' is a musical sound in the Carnatic Classical Music, which is of
two kinds; 'Ahata' and '_______'
Charmaja
Anahata
Shariraja
Lohaja
Q35: Who among the following was the Architect of the building 'St. Francis
Church' in Kochi?
George Wittet
William Emerson
Pedro Alvarez De Cabral
Goerge Bush
Q36: Which of the following states has benefited from the ‘Sirhind’ canal?
Bihar
Uttar Pradesh
Punjab
West Bengal
Q37: What is the primary function of development banks in the context of
India's industrial growth?
Their sole function is to manage the country's foreign exchange reserves.
They are involved only in short-term consumer lending.
They serve as regulatory bodies to enforce industrial standards.
Development banks provide long-term financing and support for industrial
projects and infrastructure development.
Q38: Who taught medicine in Taxila around 6th century BCE?
Paramhans Atreya
Panini Atreya
Punarvasu Atreya
Prakrit Atreya
Q39: During which of the following seasons do the Southwest Monsoon winds
enter the Indian Peninsula?
Summer
Post-Monsoon
Winter
Rainy Season
Q40: Who among the following established the Atmiya Sabha in 1814?
Raja Rammohan Roy
Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar
Keshub Chandra Sen
Debendranath Tagore
Q41: In which of the following years was Rajiv-Longowal Peace accord signed
by Indian Prime Minster Rajeev Gandhi and Akali leader Harchand Singh
Longowal?
1987
1986
1984
1985
Q42: Moved by the Swadeshi movement, ____________ painted his famous image
of Bharat Mata in 1905.
Anand Mohan Bose
Bankim Chandra chatterjee
Abanindranath Tagore
Surendranath Banerjee
Q43: At which of the following Air Force bases did the Indian Air Force
(IAF) contingent participate in the Exercise Red Flag, 2024?
Hickam Air Force Base, Hawaii
Eielson Air Force Base, Alaska
Andersen Air Force Base, Guam
Nellis Air Force Base, Nevada
Q44: In which language is the book ‘Amar Jiban’ written?
Hindi
Bengali
Urdu
English
Q45: Which of the following is the coverage provided by the 'Pradhan Mantri
Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)' in case of partial disability?
₹5 lakhs
₹50,000
₹2 lakhs
₹1 lakh
Q46: The Indian men’s hockey team beat the team of which country to win the
bronze medal at the Paris 2024 Olympics?
Australia
Belgium
Spain
Germany
Q47: How are environmental defensive expenditures classified at the
aggregate level in national accounting?
Intermediate consumption
Final consumption expenditures
Investment expenditures
Capital expenditures
Q48: BharatGen is a key initiative of Ministry of Science & Technology,
launched in October 2024. Which of the following statements is true about
this initiative?
It is focused on making India self-reliant in terms of classical computing.
It is a key initiative focused on fifth-generation bioethanol.
It focuses on developing a suite of foundational models in language, speech
and computer vision.
It aims to identify dark patterns in public distribution systems.
Q49: Which part of the Indian Constitution is related to citizenship?
Part VI
Part II
Part IV
Part III
Q50: When several factors affect any [bio] chemical process, Law of Limiting
Factors comes into effect. This law is given by:
Engelmann
Calvin
Priestley
Blackman
Report Card
Total Questions Attempted: 0
Correct Answers: 0
Wrong Answers: 0
Keep Practicing!
Why These Questions Matter
Studying real exam questions from recent shifts offers three advantages:
1. Pattern Recognition: Identify recurring topics like current affairs, Indian polity, or science.
2. Difficulty Benchmark: Understand if questions are fact-based, conceptual, or application-oriented.
3. Revision Efficiency: Prioritize high-weightage areas (e.g., government schemes, sports awards) for targeted preparation.
Pro Tip for Aspirants
Pair these questions with daily current affairs updates (January–December 2024) and static GK notes on history, geography, and the Indian Constitution. This combo will strengthen your speed and accuracy!
How to Use These Questions Effectively
-
Daily Practice: Solve 10-15 questions daily to retain facts.
-
Mock Tests: Mix these questions with other shifts’ GK sets for a broader practice range.
-
Analyze Mistakes: Revisit incorrect answers and clarify concepts immediately.
Final Thoughts
The RPF SI CBT 1 Exam demands consistent practice and strategic preparation. By working through these 50 GK questions, you’ll build confidence and adaptability for the actual test. Bookmark this post for quick revision, and pair it with our topic-wise guides to cover all bases!
Next Steps
After mastering this shift’s questions, explore our posts for
12th December, 2024 Shift 1, 2, and 13th December Shift 1, 2, 3 and others
Shifts of 2024 RRB RRB SI CBT-1 Shifts
to gain a complete understanding of the exam. Consistent practice with real
questions is your best tool for success!