If you’re preparing for the RPF SI CBT 1 Exam 2025, practicing previous shifts’ questions can be a game-changer. This post shares the 50 General Knowledge (GK) questions from the total 120 questions asked in Shift 2 on 12th December 2024 in RRB RPF SI CBT-I to help you gauge the exam’s scope, difficulty, and trending topics. This targeted resource is your key to unlocking a competitive edge, sharpening your readiness and confidence for the actual test.
Exam Overview (2024)
The RRB RPF SI CBT-1 exam evaluates candidates across 3 key subjects:
| Subjects | No. of Questions | Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Basic Arithmetic | 35 | 35 |
| General Awareness | 50 | 50 |
| General Intelligence & Reasoning | 35 | 35 |
| Total | 120 | 120 |
RRB RPF SI CBT-1 Paper: 12 December, 2024 Shift 2
- Duration: 90 minutes.
-
Marks for Correct Answers: +1
-
Marks for Un-attempted Questions: 0
-
Negative Marking: 1/3 marks deducted for wrong answers.
- Shift:1 (12:30 PM - 2:00 PM)
Practice
Show All Answers
Q1: Where is the Vajragiri Buddhist monastery located?
Uttar Pradesh
Madhya Pradesh
Odisha
Bihar
Q2: Which of the following states in India was the first to implement the
Panchayati Raj system?
Maharashtra
Kerala
West Bengal
Rajasthan
Q3: Consider the following statements.
1. Elections are held every five years for the Lok Sabha and each Legislative Assembly.
2. The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha even before the completion of 5 years of the government, if the Prime Minister makes such a recommendation to the President.
3. The Council of Ministers automatically gets dissolved due to the death or resignation of the Prime Minister.
4. The Lok Sabha elections are conducted according to the 'first past the post' system.
Select the correct statement.
1. Elections are held every five years for the Lok Sabha and each Legislative Assembly.
2. The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha even before the completion of 5 years of the government, if the Prime Minister makes such a recommendation to the President.
3. The Council of Ministers automatically gets dissolved due to the death or resignation of the Prime Minister.
4. The Lok Sabha elections are conducted according to the 'first past the post' system.
Select the correct statement.
Only 1, 2 and 4
Only 1 and 4
Only 1 and 2
All 1,2,3 and 4
Q4: Which of the following optical instruments creates colourful beautiful
patterns due to multiple reflections in plane mirrors?
Telescope
Magnifying glass
Stereomicroscope
Kaleidoscope
Q5: Vigyan Shri 2024 Awardee in the field of agricultural sciences, Dr.
Anandharamakrishnan C, is the Director of which of the following
institutions as on October 2024?
CSIR-National Institute For Interdisciplinary Science and Technology,
Thiruvananthapuram
ICAR-Central Arid Zone Research Institute, Jodhpur
CSIR-Centre for Cellular Molecular Biology, Hyderabad
ICAR-Central Institute on Fisheries Education, Mumbai
Q6: Which of the following states has the highest female literacy according
to census of 2011?
Tripura
Mizoram
Kerala
Goa
Q7: Which of the following two organisations teamed up to develop India’s
first indigenous CAR-T cell therapy?
IIT Bombay and IIT Madras
IIT Delhi and AIIMS Delhi
IIT Ropar and PGI Chandigarh
IIT Bombay and Tata Memorial Centre
Q8: Which of the following States/UTs DOES NOT have any SC population as per
the Census 2011?
Tripura
Sikkim
Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Manipur
Q9: The Hazira-Vijaipur-Jagdishpur (HVJ) gas pipeline links Mumbai High with
industries in which of the following regions of India?
Northern and eastern
Western and northern
Central and western
Southern and eastern
Q10: PV Sindhu was accompanied by whom as the flag bearer of India at the
Paris 2024 Olympics opening ceremony?
PR Sreejesh
Aman Sehrawat
Manu Bhaker
Sharath Kamal
Q11: With reference to the Indian Monsoon, who among the following
established the relationship between upper air circulations and atmospheric
conditions over the Tibetan plateau?
RK Sinha
P Koteswaram
Birbal Sahni
Tessy Thomas
Q12: How do microfinance institutions (MFIs) contribute to financial
inclusion in remote rural areas of India?
By establishing partnerships with local non-governmental organisations
(NGOs) for outreach
By relying solely on digital banking platforms for loan disbursement
By focusing exclusively on urban micro-enterprises
By offering standardised loan products similar to traditional banks
Q13: The first Turkish ruler who introduced pure Arabic coins in India was
________________.
Qutubuddin Aibak
Balban
Alauddin Khilji
Iltutmish
Q14: Who among the following established the Khalji dynasty?
Jalaluddin Khalji
Mubarak Shah Khalji
Alauddin Khalji
Arkali khan
Q15: Which Indian cricketer became the first batsman to cross 700 runs in a
single World Cup edition during the 2023 ODI Cricket World Cup?
Yashasvi Jaiswal
Shubman Gill
Rohit Sharma
Virat Kohli
Q16: Which of the following local storms is beneficial for tea, jute and
rice cultivation?
Loo
Mango showers
Blossom showers
Nor Westers
Q17: Postulates of special theory of relativity are applicable to
__________________.
accelerated frames
stationary frames
inertial frames
all frames of references
Q18: Bhanudeva II, the ruler of Jajnagar in Orissa helped Rai Rudra Dev of
Warangal in his battle against ____________, the Sultan of Delhi.
Firoz Shah Tughlaq
Sikandar Lodhi
Bahlol Lodhi
Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
Q19: _________ is the just distribution of resources in which every Indian
should be able to meet his/her basic needs and inequality in the
distribution of wealth should be reduced.
Equity
Inclusion
Egalitarianism
Equality
Q20: Which of the following colour revolutions is NOT correctly matched with
its associated agricultural sector's significant increase in production in
India since Independence?
White revolution - Milk
Green revolution - Foodgrain production
Blue revolution - Fruits and vegetables
Yellow revolution - Oilseeds
Q21: In which of the following years did the Britishers establish their
first factory in Bengal?
1651
1605
1631
1659
Q22: Which of the following plant components is/are tasked with conveying
water and nutrients from the roots to other parts of the plant?
Stomata
Xylem
Epidermis
Phloem
Q23: In which House of Parliament can a money bill be introduced?
Rajya Sabha
Vidhan Parishad
Lok Sabha
Vidhan Sabha
Q24: Who among the following wrote the story book 'Dollar Bahu'?
EB Havell
Prasanna Kumar Acharya
Dr Sudha Murty
Aravind Adiga
Q25:
Match the (List-I - Geographical regions) with (List II - Reason for their distinct climate) and select your answer the code below:
| (List-I - geographical regions) | (List II reason for their distinct climate) |
|---|---|
| (a) Rajasthan | i. Houses have sloping roofs |
| (b) Tarai region | ii. Houses have thick walls and flat roofs |
| (c) Assam | iii. Houses are built on stilts |
| (d) Goa | iv. Experiences seasonal rain during October and November |
(a) iv (b) iii (c) ii (d) i
(a) iii (b) i (c) ii (d) iii
(a) ii (b) i (c) iii (d)iv
(a) iii (b) ii (c) i (d) iv
Q26: The 15th BRICS summit unanimously decided to invite how many countries
to become full members from 1 January 2024?
Seven
Five
Eight
Six
Q27: Which statement is FALSE about particles of a matter?
Particles of matter attract each other.
Particles of matter are continuously moving.
Particles of matter have space between them.
Motion of particles of matter is unaffected by any external forces.
Q28: The traditional folk music of Uttar Pradesh, featuring soulful melodies
and often performed during weddings and festive occasions, is known as:
Maand
Kajari
Baul
Panihari
Q29: On which document is the Concept of Directive Principles of State
Policy based?
Magna Carta
Irish Constitution
British Constitution
United States Constitution
Q30: Off the coast of which state of India was the New Generation Ballistic
Missile ‘Agni Prime’ successfully flight-tested in June 2023?
Maharashtra
Andhra Pradesh
Odisha
Rajasthan
Q31: Who assumed charge as Deputy Chief of the Naval Staff in October 2023?
Vice Admiral R Hari Kumar
Vice Admiral Tarun Sobti
Vice Admiral Anil Kumar Chawla
Vice Admiral Ajit Kumar
Q32: PM Gatishakti National Master Plan was launched in which year?
2021
2023
2019
2020
Q33: Which of the following is the definition of Globalisation?
Globalisation is an outcome of industrial policies that aim to transform the
world towards greater interdependence and integration.
Globalisation is an outcome of a set of various policies aimed at
transforming the world towards greater interdependence and integration.
Globalisation is an outcome of trading policies that aim to transform the
world towards greater interdependence and integration.
Globalisation is an outcome of agricultural policies that aim to transform
the world towards greater interdependence and integration.
Q34: Which of the following Amendments has added the 11th Fundamental Duty
in the Indian Constitution?
86th Amendment
72nd Amendment
80th Amendment
84th Amendment
Q35: In the context of plant and animal kingdoms, what does chemotaxonomy
primarily focus on?
The classification of organisms based on their ecological roles.
The classification of organisms based on their chemical composition.
The examination of genetic sequences in mitochondrial DNA.
The classification of organisms based on their morphological
characteristics.
Q36: On which of the following dates was the Supreme Court of India
established?
22nd July 1950
26th January 1950
15th August 1950
28th January 1950
Q37: Who among the following great personalities, along with his followers,
founded the 'Brahmo Samaj of India' in 1866?
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Debendranath Tagore
Dayananda Saraswati
Keshab Chandra Sen
Q38: Former Lok Sabha MP from Assam Ramen Deka was appointed as Governor of
which of the following states of India in July 2024?
Chhattisgarh
Andhra Pradesh
Odisha
Maharashtra
Q39: PM – Daksh Yojana is associated with:
precautionary health measures
protection from neighbouring countries
skill development training programmes
use of fertilisers in agriculture
Q40: In August 2024, Grinson George was appointed as the director of which
of the following institutions?
Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI), Ernakulam
ICAR-National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal
ICAR-Central Avian Research Institute, Izatnagar
ICAR-Central Institute of Research on Cotton Technology, Mumbai
Q41: Who among the following served as India's first Deputy Prime minister?
Morarji Desai
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Lal Bahadur Shastri
Jawaharlal Nehru
Q42: Bhajan Lal Sharma took oath on 15 December 2023 as the Chief Minister
of which of the following states of India?
Madhya Pradesh
Jharkhand
Haryana
Rajasthan
Q43: Which round of the National Family Health Survey (NFHS) for maternal
and child health and other associated indicators was launched by the Centre
in December 2023?
NFHS-4
NFHS-6
NFHS-5
NFHS-7
Q44: Which of the following methods is used for the estimation of poverty in
India?
Absolute Poverty
Head Count Ratio
Multidimensional Poverty Index
Relative Poverty
Q45: How many of the following ways of losing citizenship have been
prescribed in the Citizenship Act, 1955?
2
4
3
5
Q46: The Skill India Mission, aimed at training over 40 crore people in
India in different skills by 2022, is primarily facilitated by which of the
following?
National Career Service (NCS)
Both National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) and Pradhan Mantri
Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)
National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC)
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)
Q47: Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala, who was selected for the post of the Director
General of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) until 31 August 2025, belongs
to which African country?
Nigeria
South Africa
Algeria
Sudan
Q48: Who was the first musician from Asia to be honoured with the Ramon
Magsaysay Award for contributions to Carnatic music?
Sai Shravanam
MS Subbulakshmi
GN Balasubramaniam
Amrutha Venkatesh
Q49: Who among the following composed the treatise, 'Mahabhashya'?
Hala
Patanjali
Banabhatt
Panini
Q50: Intestinal hookworm disease in humans is caused by which species of
Aschelminthes?
Ascaris lumbricoides
Ancylostoma duodenale
Trichuris trichiura
Strongyloides stercoralis
Report Card
Total Questions Attempted: 0
Correct Answers: 0
Wrong Answers: 0
Keep Practicing!
Why These Questions Matter
Studying real exam questions from recent shifts offers three advantages:
1. Pattern Recognition: Identify recurring topics like current affairs, Indian polity, or science.
2. Difficulty Benchmark: Understand if questions are fact-based, conceptual, or application-oriented.
3. Revision Efficiency: Prioritize high-weightage areas (e.g., government schemes, sports awards) for targeted preparation.
Pro Tip for Aspirants
Pair these questions with daily current affairs updates (January–December 2024) and static GK notes on history, geography, and the Indian Constitution. This combo will strengthen your speed and accuracy!
How to Use These Questions Effectively
-
Daily Practice: Solve 10-15 questions daily to retain facts.
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Mock Tests: Mix these questions with other shifts’ GK sets for a broader practice range.
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Analyze Mistakes: Revisit incorrect answers and clarify concepts immediately.
Final Thoughts
The RPF SI CBT 1 Exam demands consistent practice and strategic preparation. By working through these 50 GK questions, you’ll build confidence and adaptability for the actual test. Bookmark this post for quick revision, and pair it with our topic-wise guides to cover all bases!
Next Steps
After mastering this shift’s questions, explore our posts for
12th December, 2024 Shift 1, 3, and 13th December Shift 1, 2, 3 and others
Shifts of 2024 RRB RRB SI CBT-1 Shifts
to gain a complete understanding of the exam. Consistent practice with real
questions is your best tool for success!