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RRB RPF SI CBT-I GK: 12 December, 2024 Shift 1| Practice Now

If you’re preparing for the RPF SI CBT 1 Exam 2025, practicing previous shifts’ questions can be a game-changer. This post shares the 50 General Knowledge (GK) questions from the total 120 questions asked in Shift 1 on 12th December 2024 in RRB RPF SI CBT-I to help you gauge the exam’s scope, difficulty, and trending topics. This targeted resource is your key to unlocking a competitive edge, sharpening your readiness and confidence for the actual test.

RRB RPF SI CBT-I GK: 12th December, 2024 Shift 1| Practice Now

Exam Overview (2024)

The RRB RPF SI CBT-1 exam evaluates candidates across 3 key subjects:

Subjects No. of Questions Marks
Basic Arithmetic 35 35
General Awareness 50 50
General Intelligence & Reasoning 35 35
Total 120 120

RRB RPF SI CBT-1 Paper: 12 December, 2024 Shift 1

  • Duration: 90 minutes.
  • Marks for Correct Answers: +1

  • Marks for Un-attempted Questions: 0

  • Negative Marking: 1/3 marks deducted for wrong answers.

  • Shift:1 (9:00 AM - 10:30 AM)
Practice Show All Answers
Q1: In the context of genetics, what is the primary purpose of pedigree analysis?
To measure the physical traits of individuals in a population
To analyse the nutritional requirements of different organisms
To track the inheritance of specific traits across generations within a family
To study the ecological interactions between species in an environment

Q2: Which of the following is the general trend of rainfall distribution across the northern plains of India?
It decreases from east to west.
It is a uniform distribuon across the region.
It increases from east to west.
It decreases from west to east.

Q3: In which year was the 'Bharatiya Sakshya Bill' passed in India?
2023
2024
2022
2021

Q4: In March 2023, India rejected Johnson and Johnson’s attempt to extend its monopoly on the manufacturing of which TB drug, invoking Section 3(d) of the Indian Patent Law?
Rifampin
Bedaquiline
Isoniazid
Ethambutol

Q5: Who among the social reformers following founded the Widow Remarriage Association in 1861?
Dadabhai Naoroji
Mahavdev Govind Ranade
Jyotiba Phule
Dayanand Saraswati

Q6: Ritu Negi, who was awarded with the Arjuna Awards for outstanding performance in Sports and Games 2023, is a player related to which of the following games?
Boxing
Kabaddi
Archery
Kho-Kho

Q7: The Bills of Lading Bill, 2024 was introduced by which of the following ministries in August 2024?
Ministry Of Home Affairs
Ministry of Civil Aviation
Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Q8: Which of the following is the Keynesian approach to the degree of wage and price flexibility in the labour market?
Wages and prices are sticky.
Wages and prices are fully flexible.
Wages are flexible but prices are sticky.
Wages are sticky but prices are flexible.

Q9: What is the major rationale of the Government of India to set up the Agricultural Prices Commission?
To determine the prices of agricultural goods sold in the market
To determine the prices of seeds supplied by the government
To determine the prices of agricultural goods sold by the government
To determine the prices of agricultural goods procured from farmers

Q10: With reference to agriculture in India, what is ‘Barani’?
Rainfed farming
Deity of agriculture
Shifting agriculture
Variety of maize

Q11: In 1978, the _________ Amendment to the Constitution removed the right to the property from the list of the fundamental rights and converted it into a simple legal right under Article 300A.
44th
42nd
45th
43rd

Q12: Which of the following is NOT included in the Fundamental Duties enshrined in the Indian Constitution?
To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom
To pay taxes
To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country's composite culture
To safeguard public property and to abjure violence

Q13: What is the term of office of the Chairmen and Members of the National Commission of Scheduled Tribes?
06 Years
04 Years
03 Years
5.5 Years

Q14: The joint Air Force exercise known as ‘GARUDA-VII’ was held between:
India and South Africa
India and France
India and Malaysia
India and Sudan

Q15: How many stanzas are there in the poem ‘Nandikkalambakam’?
60 stanzas
50 stanzas
70 stanzas
80 stanzas

Q16: Who among the following Indian won the UN Military Gender Advocate of the Year award in 2023?
Major Ananya Sen
Major Monika Sen
Major Radhika Sen
Major Wamika Sen

Q17: Who among the following Carnatic music composers is known for his compositional contributions in Telugu and Sanskrit languages, particularly in praise of Lord Rama?
Muthuswami Dikshitar
Tyagaraja
Annamacharya
Purandara Dasa

Q18: The fourth state of matter 'PLASMA' is a/an ______________.
neutral gas with fewer electrons
ionised gas with ions and electrons in an almost equal number
state between liquid and gas
ionized gas

Q19: In which of the following years has Dinesh Goswami committee been formed for Electoral Reforms?
2000
1998
1990
2005

Q20: Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can a member of the Public Service Commission be removed by the President of India?
Article 318
Article 317
Article 314
Article 315

Q21: A reproductive method in which a single parent is capable of producing offsprings is called _____.
Asexual Reproduction
Fertilization
Pollination
Sexual Reproduction

Q22: The term ‘Pallavi’ relates to the first or the second thematic lines of the composition in which of the following music?
Classical Urdu music
Classical Tribal and Folk music
Classical Carnatic music
Classical Hindustani music

Q23: Neeraja Prabhakar was nominated Chairperson of the Research Advisory Committee (RAC) of ___________ in 2023.
ICAR-Indian Institute of Oil Palm Research (IIOPR), Pedavegi
ICAR-Central Avian Research Institute, Izatnagar
ICAR-Central Institute of Research on Cotton Technology, Mumbai
ICAR-National Dairy Research Institute, Karnal

Q24: Which of the following is involved in the process of privatisation?
Abolishing private property rights
Selling shares to the public through an initial public offering (IPO)
Increasing government control over the enterprise
Nationalising private companies

Q25: The Kayatha Culture of Chalcolithic period in Ancient India belongs to which of the following states of India?
Punjab
Rajasthan
Madhya Pradesh
Maharashtra

Q26: Which of the following aspects is covered by the Ayushman Sahakar Scheme?
Healthcare and Education infrastructure
Agriculture infrastructure
Housing infrastructure
Physical infrastructure

Q27: The 7th meeting of the UN Committee of Experts on Business and Trade Statistics, organised by the World Trade Organization (WTO) in September 2024, was held at which place?
Beijing
Madrid
Geneva
Budapest

Q28: Which of the following states has the highest sex ratio (females per 1000 males) according to the Census 2011?
Tamilnadu
Himachal Pradesh
Kerala
Punjab

Q29: Who wrote the book 'The Discovery of India'?
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Bhagat Singh
Jawaharlal Nehru
Mahatma Gandhi

Q30: Which of the following union territories has the highest literacy rate among males in India according to Census 2011?
Delhi
Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Lakshadweep
Puducherry

Q31: Which of the following diagrams accurately depicts the properties of convex lenses?
Convex Lens options : RRB RPF SI 2024 GK Question
a
d
c
b

Q32: Who among the following introduced the Boilers Bill, 2024 in Rajya Sabha in August 2024?
Union Minister for Tribal Affairs
Union Minister for Minority Affairs
Union Minister for Commerce and Industry
Union Minister for Finance

Q33: Which of the following Sultans of Delhi adopted the policy of Blood and Iron?
Shamsuddin Iltutmish
Ghiyasuddin Balban
Mubarak Shah
Alauddin Khalji

Q34: In April 2023, India’s first Laser Interferometer Gravitational Waves Observatory project was approved to be established in which of the following states?
Uttar Pradesh
Odisha
Rajasthan
Maharashtra

Q35: When did HH Dixon give the first detailed description of the cohesion-tension theory explaining the water transport in xylem?
1890
1982
1914
1937

Q36: In which of the following years was the All India Muslim League founded?
1906
1919
1905
1914

Q37: Which of the following teams won the Season 10 of Pro Kabaddi League (PKL), concluded in March 2024?
Patna Pirates
Jaipur Pink Panthers
Puneri Paltan
Haryana Steelers

Q38: Where in India is the 'Basilica of Bom Jesus' building located?
Mumbai
Delhi
Goa
Ranchi

Q39: The fourth Quad Leaders’ Summit of September 2024 was held at which place in the United States?
Wilmington
Chicago
New York
Dallas

Q40: Which Indian government scheme is specifically aimed at providing at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment to rural households?
Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY)
National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM)
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)

Q41: In which year was the first Regional Rural Bank established?
1975
1991
1980
1982

Q42: Which of the following river systems in Rajasthan is the most extensive and transient with its source near Pushkar, splitting into two streams known as 'Saraswati' and 'Sabarmati'?
Godavari River
Tapti River
Luni River
Yamuna River

Q43: State Highways in India primarily link which of the following?
Extreme parts of the country with New Delhi
State capitals with different district headquarters
District headquarters with other places of the district
Rural areas and villages with state capitals

Q44: Which of the following substances produces hydroxide ions when dissolved in water?
Ammonia
Nitrogen dioxide
Carbon dioxide
Sulphur dioxide

Q45: Which of following is NOT a measure to improve agricultural marketing?
Better infrastructural facilities
Regulated markets to protect farmer from malpractice
Providing fair price for farmer produce
Manupulation by big traders

Q46: Who among the following is the author of 'Adipurana'?
Jinasena
Rishabhdeva
Amoghvarsha
Krishna

Q47: Which of the following is NOT a part of the electoral college for the election of the President?
Elected members of the Lok Sabha
Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha
Elected members of the State Assembly
Elected members of the Rajya Sabha

Q48:

Match the Column-I with Column-II and select your answer from the codes mentioned below:

Column I Column II
(a) Northeast Trade Winds i. Hot, dry winds of northern India
(b) Southwest Monsoon Winds ii. Brings winter rains to the northern plains
(c) Winter Cyclonic Disturbances iii. Brings moisture-laden winds from the Indian Ocean
(d) Loo iv. Blows from land to sea during winter
(a) i (b) ii (c) iii (d) iv
(a) iv (b) iii (c) ii (d) i
(a) iii (b) iv (c) ii (d) i
(a) iv (b) ii (c) iii (d) i

Q49: The Abhinav Bharat Mandir (Young India Society) was founded by _________ and his brother as a secret organisation during the Indian War for Independence.
Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
Damodar Hari Chapekar
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Mahadev Govind Ranade

Q50: In which of the following cases was 'the basic structure doctrine' recognised for the first time?
Kumar Padma Prasad case
Berubari Union case
LIC of India case
Kesavananda Bharti case

Report Card

Total Questions Attempted: 0

Correct Answers: 0

Wrong Answers: 0

Keep Practicing!


Why These Questions Matter

Studying real exam questions from recent shifts offers three advantages:

1. Pattern Recognition: Identify recurring topics like current affairs, Indian polity, or science.

2. Difficulty Benchmark: Understand if questions are fact-based, conceptual, or application-oriented.

3. Revision Efficiency: Prioritize high-weightage areas (e.g., government schemes, sports awards) for targeted preparation.

Pro Tip for Aspirants

Pair these questions with daily current affairs updates (January–December 2024) and static GK notes on history, geography, and the Indian Constitution. This combo will strengthen your speed and accuracy!

How to Use These Questions Effectively

  • Daily Practice: Solve 10-15 questions daily to retain facts.

  • Mock Tests: Mix these questions with other shifts’ GK sets for a broader practice range.

  • Analyze Mistakes: Revisit incorrect answers and clarify concepts immediately.

Final Thoughts

The RPF SI CBT 1 Exam demands consistent practice and strategic preparation. By working through these 50 GK questions, you’ll build confidence and adaptability for the actual test. Bookmark this post for quick revision, and pair it with our topic-wise guides to cover all bases!

Next Steps

After mastering this shift’s questions, explore our posts for 12th December, 2024 Shift 2, 3, and 13th December Shift 1, 2, 3 and others Shifts of 2024 RRB RRB SI CBT-1 Shifts to gain a complete understanding of the exam. Consistent practice with real questions is your best tool for success!