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RRB RPF SI CBT-I GK: 9 December, 2024 Shift 2| Practice Now

If you’re preparing for the RPF SI CBT 1 Exam 2025, practicing previous shifts’ questions can be a game-changer. This post shares the 50 General Knowledge (GK) questions from the total 120 questions asked in Shift 2 on 9th December 2024 in RRB RPF SI CBT-I to help you gauge the exam’s scope, difficulty, and trending topics. This targeted resource is your key to unlocking a competitive edge, sharpening your readiness and confidence for the actual test.

RRB RPF SI CBT-I GK: 9th December, 2024 Shift 2| Practice Now

Exam Overview (2024)

The RRB RPF SI CBT-1 exam evaluates candidates across 3 key subjects:

Subjects No. of Questions Marks
Basic Arithmetic 35 35
General Awareness 50 50
General Intelligence & Reasoning 35 35
Total 120 120

RRB RPF SI CBT-1 Paper: 09 December, 2024 Shift 2

  • Duration: 90 minutes.
  • Marks for Correct Answers: +1

  • Marks for Un-attempted Questions: 0

  • Negative Marking: 1/3 marks deducted for wrong answers.

  • Shift:1 (12:30 PM - 2:00 PM)
Practice Show All Answers
Q1: In which of the following ways can the utility be expressed in cardinal utility analysis?
In numbers
In quality
In rank
In order

Q2: Which of the following is NOT one of the new criminal laws introduced in 2024?
Indian Penal Code (IPC)
Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)

Q3: Which of the following census years reported the highest sex ratio in India?
2011
1901
1951
1991

Q4: Which of the following was the strength of the Judges of Supreme Court of India after the commencement of the Constitution in 1950?
8
10
12
6

Q5: An optical instrument used in a system of prisms, lenses or mirrors to reflect images through a tube is called:
telescope
binocular
kaleidoscope
periscope

Q6: In January 2024, India had decided to formally join the Square Kilometer Array (SKA) project, an international scientific collaboration working to build the world’s largest __________.
radio telescope
optical telescope
particle accelerator
space station

Q7: In which of the following years did the government sell its stake in IRCON International Limited?
2015
2018
2023
2021

Q8: In which of the following years was the National Commission for Women established?
1991
1992
1985
2004

Q9: Joint military exercise ‘Harimau Shakti-2022’ commenced on 28th November, which is an annual training event between the Indian Army and which of the following armies?
Singapore
Japan
Indonesia
Malaysia

Q10: Who were India’s flag-bearers at the Paris 2024 Paralympics closing ceremony?
Bhagyashree Jadhav and Sumit Antil
Manish Narwal and Yogesh Kathuniya
Harvinder Singh and Preethi Pal
Avani Lekhara and Nishad Kumar

Q11: Which of the following ports is NOT correctly linked to its location?
Visakhapatnam Port - Telangana
Tuticorin Port - Tamil Nadu
Kochi Port - Kerala
Mormugao Port - Goa

Q12: Which of the following was the original name of Sher Shah Suri, the founder of Suri dynasty?
Adham Khan
Farid Khan
Ulugh khan
Murtaza Khan

Q13: Who among the following wrote the autobiography ‘Ardhakathanak’?
Valmiki
Banarasidas
Rassundari Devi
Narmad

Q14: A nutrient which acts as a cushion to the vital organs and protects them from shocks and external injuries is:
fat
carbohydrate
vitamin
protein

Q15: Which of the following is NOT provided in Part IV A (Fundamental Duties) of the Indian Constitution?
To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
To promote spirit of brotherhood amongst all people of India
To respect the National Flag
To respect our parents and teachers

Q16: Which of the following statements is FALSE about the Deccan Plateau?
The Eastern Ghats stretch from the Mahanadi Valley to the Nigiris in the south.
Mahendragiri is the highest peak in the Western Ghats.
The height of the Western Ghats progressively increases from north to south.
The Western Ghats are higher than the Eastern Ghats.

Q17: Which of the following musical forms is intimately related to classical Carnatic music?
Gitam
Wanvun
Bhand Pather
Firdost

Q18: Which of the following Union Territories of India is having the highest decadal growth rate of population as per 2011 census?
Lakshadweep
Dadar and Nagar Haveli
Chandigarh
Puducherry

Q19: Which of the following is the correct function of marketed surplus?
Marketed Surplus = Total demand in the market - Total supply
Marketed Surplus = Total supply of the market - Total demand
Marketed Surplus = Total farm output produced by the farmer - Own consumption of farm output
Marketed Surplus = Total farm produce - Previous years stock in the market

Q20: Which of the following types of forests has trees that are mainly scattered with long roots and succulent stems?
Tropical Deciduous Forests
Mangrove Forests
Montane Forests
Tropical Thorn Forests and Scrubs

Q21: In February 2024, Genome India Project was completed. Which of the following statements is NOT true about Genome India Project?
The project was funded and coordinated by the Department of Biotechnology, Govt. of India.
It was initiated in 2020.
1 million genome samples were to be collected across the country from citizens of India.
The aim was to build a reference genome and study genetic diversity among Indians.

Q22: Who among the following was a classical Hindustani singer?
V Sheshanna
MS Subbulakshmi
Begum Akhtar
TK Iyengar

Q23: In which of the following years was the Ethics Committee in the Rajya Sabha constituted?
2000
1995
1999
1997

Q24: In which of the following years was the Satya Shodhak Samaj founded?
1776
1885
1873
1794

Q25: How do rural development programmes like the Self-Help Group (SHG) initiative contribute to gender equality in rural India?
Primarily through educational programmes
Solely by improving agricultural productivity
By providing women with employment opportunities only
By enhancing women's access to finance, leadership roles and decision-making

Q26: What significant change was implemented in India's New Economic Policy of 1991 to expand privatisation?
Centralising government control over key industries
Increasing the number of industries reserved for public sector control
Establishing more Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) across various sectors
Reducing the list of industries reserved for public sector control

Q27: The group of North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) has how many member countries, as on 30 September 2024?
32
39
12
21

Q28: The 130th birth anniversary of Satyendra Nath Bose was observed on 1 January 2024. He was a renowned __________.
literary
botanist
physicist
zoologist

Q29: Which of the following is the correct definition of jobless growth?
It is an economic phenomenon in which an economy experiences decreasing level of employment.
It is an economic phenomenon in which an economy experiences growth while maintaining or decreasing its level of employment.
It is an economic phenomenon in which an economy experiences low level of employment in a relative term.
It is an economic phenomenon in which an economy experiences decreasing level of growth.

Q30: N Chandrababu Naidu, who took oath as Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister on 12 June 2024, belongs to which of the following political parties?
Jana Sena Party (JSP)
YSR Congress Party (YSRCP)
Telugu Desam Party (TDP)
Bhartiya Janata Party (BJP)

Q31: Which of the following river systems is responsible for the formation of the Sundarbans delta?
Cauvery
Sindhu
Godavari
Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna

Q32: Which of the following methods is most commonly used nowadays to determine nitrogen and protein content in foods?
Kjeldahl method
Paradkar method
Barfoed method
Nessler’s method

Q33: ____________ is a natural source of acetic acid.
Orange
Tamarind
Tomato
Vinegar

Q34: Which of the following issues has been faced by India since independence?
Poverty
Globalisation
Literacy
Agriculture productivity

Q35: How many subjects are there in the 'Union List' as of May 2024?
100 subjects
66 subjects
97 subjects
98 subjects

Q36: Which of the following kings of the Vijayanagara Empire assumed the title of Yavanarajya Sthapanacharya?
Rama Raya
Achyuta Deva Raya
Krishnadevaraya
Sadasiva Raya

Q37: The stone used for the construction of the Basilica of Bom Jesus in Goa was brought from which of the following places?
Hamirpur
Jaipur
Gaya
Bassein

Q38: Who among the following was NOT associated with the Hindustan Republican Association (H.R.A.)?
Ashfaqulla Khan
Sachindra Nath Bakshi
Subhash Chandra Bose
Ram Prasad Bismil

Q39: Name the main method used for thickening sauces and in the production of bread and pastries.
Gelatinisation
Dextrinisation
Caramelisation
Retrogradation

Q40: In June 2024, which of the following portfolios was allotted to Anitha Vangalapudi in the Andhra Pradesh Cabinet?
Deputy Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh
Minister of Panchayat Raj and Rural Development of Andhra Pradesh
Home Minister of Andhra Pradesh
Minister of Information Technology and Communication of Andhra Pradesh

Q41: The KAZA 2024, Heads of State inaugural Summit by Members of the five-nation Kavango-Zambezi Trans-Frontier Conservation Area (KAZA-TFCA) was held in which month at Livingstone, Zambia?
July 2024
April 2024
August 2024
May 2024

Q42: Match the following correctly.
Set-I Set-II
a. Panini 1. Maalvikagnimitram
b. Hala 2. Mahabhashya
c. Kalidas 3. Ashtadhyayi
d. Patanjali 4. Gaathasaptshati
a - 2; b - 3; c - 4; d - 1
a - 3; b - 4; c - 1; d - 2
a - 3; b - 4; c - 2; d - 1
a - 4; b - 3; c - 2; d - 1

Q43: Which of the following has built the Atal Tunnel?
Indian Railways
National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
Border Roads Organisation
Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana

Q44: The right-hand rule of induced current was given by:
Fleming
Faraday
Oersted
Ampere

Q45: Where was the joint bilateral training 'Exercise Harimau Shakti 2023' conducted?
Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia
Kota Kinabalu, Malaysia
Umroi Cantonment, India
New Delhi, India

Q46: Arrange the following rulers of the Pala dynasty in the chronological order.
Mahipal < Dharampal < Devpal < Naypal
Dharampal < Devpal < Mahipal < Naypal
Mahipal < Dharampal < Naypal < Devpal
Devpal < Dharampal < Mahipal < Naypal

Q47: Who among the following reinterpreted verses from the Koran to argue for women’s education?
Begum Anis Kidwai
Bibi Amtus Salam
Baji Jamalunnisa
Mumtaz Ali

Q48: The Constitution ensures the security of the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners. They are appointed for _______ years term or continue till the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
6
5
4
10

Q49: Who became the first Indian woman to win two gold medals at the Paralympic Games after winning a gold medal at Paris Paralympic Games 2024?
Deepthi Jeevanji
Simran Sharma
Rubina Francis
Avani Lekhara

Q50: Which of the following Acts regulates the acquisition of Indian Citizenship?
Indian Citizenship Act, 1960
Indian Citizenship Act, 1955
Indian Citizenship Act, 1948
Indian Citizenship Act, 1947

Report Card

Total Questions Attempted: 0

Correct Answers: 0

Wrong Answers: 0

Keep Practicing!


Why These Questions Matter

Studying real exam questions from recent shifts offers three advantages:

1. Pattern Recognition: Identify recurring topics like current affairs, Indian polity, or science.

2. Difficulty Benchmark: Understand if questions are fact-based, conceptual, or application-oriented.

3. Revision Efficiency: Prioritize high-weightage areas (e.g., government schemes, sports awards) for targeted preparation.

Pro Tip for Aspirants

Pair these questions with daily current affairs updates (January–December 2024) and static GK notes on history, geography, and the Indian Constitution. This combo will strengthen your speed and accuracy!

How to Use These Questions Effectively

  • Daily Practice: Solve 10-15 questions daily to retain facts.

  • Mock Tests: Mix these questions with other shifts’ GK sets for a broader practice range.

  • Analyze Mistakes: Revisit incorrect answers and clarify concepts immediately.

Final Thoughts

The RPF SI CBT 1 Exam demands consistent practice and strategic preparation. By working through these 50 GK questions, you’ll build confidence and adaptability for the actual test. Bookmark this post for quick revision, and pair it with our topic-wise guides to cover all bases!

Next Steps

After mastering this shift’s questions, explore our posts for 9th December, 2024 Shift 1, 3, and 12th December Shift 1, 2, 3 and others Shifts of 2024 RRB RRB SI CBT-1 Shifts to gain a complete understanding of the exam. Consistent practice with real questions is your best tool for success!