If you’re preparing for the RPF SI CBT 1 Exam 2025, practicing previous shifts’ questions can be a game-changer. This post shares the 50 General Knowledge (GK) questions from the total 120 questions asked in Shift 1 on 9th December 2024 in RRB RPF SI CBT-I to help you gauge the exam’s scope, difficulty, and trending topics. This targeted resource is your key to unlocking a competitive edge, sharpening your readiness and confidence for the actual test.
Exam Overview (2024)
The RRB RPF SI CBT-1 exam evaluates candidates across 3 key subjects:
| Subjects | No. of Questions | Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Basic Arithmetic | 35 | 35 |
| General Awareness | 50 | 50 |
| General Intelligence & Reasoning | 35 | 35 |
| Total | 120 | 120 |
RRB RPF SI CBT-1 Paper: 09 December, 2024 Shift 1
- Duration: 90 minutes.
-
Marks for Correct Answers: +1
-
Marks for Un-attempted Questions: 0
-
Negative Marking: 1/3 marks deducted for wrong answers.
- Shift:1 (9:00 AM - 10:30 AM)
Practice
Show All Answers
Q1: According to the Census of India 2011, from the given options, which
state recorded the lowest literacy rate?
Meghalaya
Arunachal Pradesh
Haryana
Uttarakhand
Q2: Who among the following wrote ‘The Palace of Illusions’?
Aravind Adiga
Rajiv Malhotra
Gayatri Sinha
Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni
Q3: Which of the following is responsible for the conversion of stored fats
into sugars in plant cell?
Oxysome
Glyoxysome
Golgi body
Ribosome
Q4: What is the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
Six years
Five years or till the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier
Six years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
At the pleasure of the President
Q5: Where was the 0832 India Open Competition – Rifle and Pistol 2024
organised and conducted by the National Rifle Association of India in August
2024?
Panipat
Delhi
Aligarh
Goa
Q6: The kings of which among the following dynasties defeated the kings of
Malaya, Java and Sumatra?
Pandaya
Rashtrakuta
Chola
Chera
Q7: What do you call the pattern of arrangement of leaves on a stem or
branch?
Apotaxis
Thallotaxy
Phyllotaxy
Geotaxis
Q8: In which of the following Articles are there provisions related to
establishment of the Election Commission?
Article 330
Article 343
Article 353
Article 324
Q9: Who became the President of Mexico in June 2024 who was a climate
scientist and former mayor of Mexico City?
Enrique Pena Nieto
Andres Manuel Lopez Obrador
Felipe Calderon
Claudia Sheinbaum
Q10: Who is the Minister of State for Defence as of August 2024 in India?
Amrendra Tiwari
Vijay Bhatt
Alok Tiwari
Sanjay Seth
Q11: The Carriage of Goods by Sea Bill, 2024, introduced in Lok Sabha on 9
August 2024 seeks to replace the Indian Carriage of Goods by Sea Act, _____.
1906
1921
1925
1915
Q12: Which country officially became the 100th full member of the
International Solar Alliance (ISA) in June 2024?
Paraguay
Nepal
Armenia
Spain
Q13: The child sex ratio (females per 1000 males) in India from 1951 to
2011:
decreased
increased
increased and then decreased
was stable
Q14: ISRO successfully tested a 100 W class Polymer Electrolyte Membrane
Fuel Cell based Power System (FCPS) in its orbital platform, POEM3, using
which of the following two gases?
Nitrogen and oxygen
Hydrogen and helium
Nitrogen and argon
Hydrogen and oxygen
Q15: ‘The service of mankind is a means to salvation’. This slogan was
propounded by Gangadhar Chattopadhyay. He was associated with ________
Ramakrishna Mission
Prarthana Samaj
Brahmo Samaj
Arya Samaj
Q16: Who among the following Mughal Princes allied with Malik Ambar and
revolted against his father?
Shah Jahan
Jahangir
Akbar
Aurangzeb
Q17: The Chamoli, Pithoragarh and Almora districts are part of which
biosphere reserve?
Similipal
Cold Desert
Nanda Devi
Nokrek
Q18: Onam festival is celebrated in which of the following states of India?
Maharashtra
Kerela
Arunachal Pradesh
Gujarat
Q19: How does the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) enhance
investor protection?
By providing insurance to investors
By directly investing in the stock market
By regulating stock exchanges and securities to prevent fraud
By setting monetary policies
Q20: Who among the following religious and social reformers contributed in
the abolition of Sati in 1929?
Jyotirao Govindrao Phule
Radhakant Deb
Raja Rammohan Roy
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
Q21: _____ is a form of government in which the rulers are elected by the
people.
Fascism
Democracy
Oligopoly
Theocracy
Q22: Which of the following bills was passed in Parliament to regulate the
appointment, conditions of service and term of office of the Chief Election
Commissioner and other Election Commissioners, the procedure for transaction
of business by the Election Commission and for matters connected therewith
or incidental thereto?
The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners
(Appointment Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Bill, 2024
The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Procedure
for Transaction of Business) Bill, 2024
The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Procedure
for Transaction of Business) Bill, 2023
The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners
(Appointment Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Bill, 2023
Q23: Which of the following conditions were NOT true for India’s first
winter scientific arctic expedition flagged off by Kiren Rijiju in 2023?
The exploration was carried out for the months of November and December
only.
There was almost no sunlight for 24 hours.
Subzero temperatures.
The exploration was carried out for the months of November to March.
Q24: Which of the following is NOT a class of sub phylum vertebrata?
Arachnida
Mammals
Reptilia
Aves
Q25: What was the final bidding price of Tata Sons for Air India?
Rs.16,000 crores
Rs.22,000 crores
Rs.12,000 crores
Rs.18,000 crores
Q26: Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution states that
it is the duty of every citizen of India to safeguard public property and to
abjure violence?
Article 51A (k)
Article 51A (i)
Article 51A (f)
Article 51A (d)
Q27: Who among the following is revered as 'Karnataka Sangita Pitamaha'?
Tyagaraja Dasa
Purandara Dasa
Muthuswami Dikshitar Dasa
Annamacharya Dasa
Q28: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
The green revolution enabled the government to procure a sufficient amount
of food grains to build a stock.
The spread of green revolution technology enabled India to achieve
self-sufficiency in food grains.
The use of High yielding variety seeds was restricted to the more affluent
states.
The first phase of the green revolution was started around the mid-1950s.
Q29: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with respect to
Agri-Clinics and Agri-Business Centres (AC&ABC) Scheme in India?
NABARD is implementing subsidy component under the scheme on the behalf of
Government of India.
As of December 2022, about 83810 candidates have been trained under the
scheme so far.
National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management (MANAGE) is the
implementing agency for training component under the scheme.
The AC & ABC Scheme is under implementation since April 2008.
Q30: Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides for
the Protection of ‘Life and Personal Liberty’?
Article 18
Article 25
Article 22
Article 21
Q31: Which of the following compositions reflects the devotional form of
Carnatic music?
Alha
Pandavani
Hori
Devara Nama
Q32: Which government programme aims to provide employment to rural
households through works related to water conservation, land development,
and rural infrastructure?
National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM)
Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
Pradhan Mantri Rozgar Yojana (PMRY)
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
Q33: Who among the following former RAW Chiefs has written the book titled
‘A Life in the Shadows: A Memoir’?
Arvind Dave
AS Dulat
Alok Joshi
JS Bedi
Q34: Who among the following formed the Ghadr (Gadar) Party to organise a
rebellion against the British government of India in the USA?
Lala Hardayal
Ram Prasad Bismil
Sachindra Nath Bakshi
Subhash Chandra Bose
Q35: Which Article of the Indian Constitution provided power to the Supreme
Court of India to review its own judgements?
Article 137
Article 140
Article 150
Article 138
Q36: Which of the following dams is not located in Uttarakhand?
Ramganga Dam
Lakhwar Dam
Tehri Dam
Nagi Dam
Q37: When is the Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRS) of Y for X relevant?
When the consumer ready to give up both X and Y
When the consumer is ready to give up X for an additional unit of Y
When the consumer acquires additional units of both X and Y
When the consumer is ready to give up Y for an additional unit of X
Q38: Which of the following is NOT a criterion for the post of the Chief
Justice of India?
Has been for at least five years an advocate of a High Court or of two or
more such Courts in succession
He/She is a citizen of India
In the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist
Has been for at least five years a Judge of a High Court or of two or more
such Courts in succession
Q39: In which of the following years was the battle of Bannihatti fought?
1558
1556
1565
1560
Q40: Field lines serve as a representation of a magnetic field. They
represent a path along which:
a free electron would tend to move
a hypothetical free north pole would tend to move
a hypothetical free south pole would tend to move
a free proton would tend to move
Q41: Who among the following is an Indian-origin Satellite Industry Expert
who was appointed as Director of United Nations Office for Outer Space
Affairs in June 2023?
Michael Rao
Aarti Holla-Maini
Kaushik Basu
Behruz Sethna
Q42: Select the correct group of crops that are grown in the ‘Rabi’ season
in India.
Gram and Paddy
Barley and Jowar
Gram and Mustard
Urad and Groundnut
Q43: Where are the Lakshadweep Islands located?
Close to the Malabar coast of Kerala
Close to the Konkan coast of Maharashtra
Close to the Coromandel coast of Andhra Pradesh
Close to the Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu
Q44: Which of the following rivers is NOT a part of the Deccan river system?
Krishna
Godavari
Cauvery
Sutlej
Q45: Which of the following Neolithic sites yielded the remains of three
species of deer (the Barasingha, Gazelle, and Spotted Deer)?
Didwana
Bhimbetka
Kodekal
Patne
Q46: As of February 2024, which year marked the highest number of prisoners
on death row in nearly 20 years in India?
2020
2019
2023
2021
Q47: Which of the following pH values indicates neutrality in a solution?
7
−14
14
0
Q48: Which of the following committees recommended the use of Mixed
Reference Period against Uniform Reference Period?
Tendulkar Expert Group
NITI Aayog
National Sample Survey Organisation
C Rangrajan Committee
Q49: Which former Indian shooter became the first Indian President of the
Olympic Council of Asia (OCA) in 2024?
Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore
Raja Randhir Singh
Joydeep Karmakar
Vijay Kumar
Q50: On which of the following scientific principles does a steam engine
work?
Superconductivity
Photoelectric effect
Laws of thermodynamics
Newton’s laws of motion
Report Card
Total Questions Attempted: 0
Correct Answers: 0
Wrong Answers: 0
Keep Practicing!
Why These Questions Matter
Studying real exam questions from recent shifts offers three advantages:
1. Pattern Recognition: Identify recurring topics like current affairs, Indian polity, or science.
2. Difficulty Benchmark: Understand if questions are fact-based, conceptual, or application-oriented.
3. Revision Efficiency: Prioritize high-weightage areas (e.g., government schemes, sports awards) for targeted preparation.
Pro Tip for Aspirants
Pair these questions with daily current affairs updates (January–December 2024) and static GK notes on history, geography, and the Indian Constitution. This combo will strengthen your speed and accuracy!
How to Use These Questions Effectively
-
Daily Practice: Solve 10-15 questions daily to retain facts.
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Mock Tests: Mix these questions with other shifts’ GK sets for a broader practice range.
-
Analyze Mistakes: Revisit incorrect answers and clarify concepts immediately.
Final Thoughts
The RPF SI CBT 1 Exam demands consistent practice and strategic preparation. By working through these 50 GK questions, you’ll build confidence and adaptability for the actual test. Bookmark this post for quick revision, and pair it with our topic-wise guides to cover all bases!
Next Steps
After mastering this shift’s questions, explore our posts for
9th December, 2024 Shift 2, 3, and 12th December Shift 1, 2, 3 and others
Shifts of 2024 RRB RRB SI CBT-1 Shifts
to gain a complete understanding of the exam. Consistent practice with real
questions is your best tool for success!