RRB RPF SI CBT-I GK: 3rd December, 2024 Shift 2| Practice Now
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If you’re preparing for the RPF SI CBT 1 Exam 2025,
practicing previous shifts’ questions can be a game-changer. This post shares
the 50 General Knowledge (GK) questions from the total
120 questions asked in
Shift 2 on 3rd December 2024 in RRB RPF SI CBT-I to help you
gauge the exam’s scope, difficulty, and trending topics. This targeted
resource is your key to unlocking a competitive edge, sharpening your
readiness and confidence for the actual test.
Exam Overview (2024)
The RRB RPF SI CBT-1 exam evaluates candidates across 3 key subjects:
Subjects
No. of Questions
Marks
Basic Arithmetic
35
35
General Awareness
50
50
General Intelligence & Reasoning
35
35
Total
120
120
RRB RPF SI CBT-1 Paper: 03 December, 2024 Shift 2
Duration: 90 minutes.
Marks for Correct Answers: +1
Marks for Un-attempted Questions: 0
Negative Marking: 1/3 marks deducted for wrong answers.
Shift:1 (12:30 PM - 2:00 PM)
PracticeShow All Answers
Q1: Excessive production of which of the following hormones in the body
causes the Cushing's syndrome, leading to weight gain and thinning of the
skin?
Melatonin
Vasopressin
Cortisol
Erythropoietin
Q2: In January 2015, the Government of India replaced the Planning
Commission with:
NLCIL
ICICI
IDBI
NITI Aayog
Q3: How many Indian crew were present on oil tanker ‘Advantage Sweet’ which
was seized by Iranian authorities in April 2023 and released in October
2023?
20
26
16
23
Q4: Jishnu Dev Varma, who was appointed as Governor of Telangana in July
2024, was the Former Deputy Chief Minister of which of the following states
of India?
Tripura
Kerala
Madhya Pradesh
Mizoram
Q5: Which edition of the World Future Energy Summit was held in Abu Dhabi in
April 2024?
16\(^\text{th}\)
12\(^\text{th}\)
14\(^\text{th}\)
20\(^\text{th}\)
Q6: What was India’s rank in the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) for
2023?
111
83
121
93
Q7: The Mumbai High Field (previously Bombay High Field) discovered by the
Russian and Indian team from the seismic exploration vessel Academic
Arkhangelsky in February 1974, commenced production in which year?
1975
1981
1976
1978
Q8: In which of the following years was GATT established?
1947
1948
1946
1949
Q9: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Andaman and
Nicobar Islands?
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands lie far from the equator and experience
minimal rainfall.
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands have a temperate climate with sparse forest
cover.
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are entirely made up of coral formations.
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are strategically important and have great
diversity in flora and fauna.
Q10: The Indian Navy’s trilateral exercise known as ‘IMT TRILAT’ was held
jointly with:
Mozambique and Tanzania
Egypt and Zimbabwe
Nigeria and Uganda
Sudan and Ethiopia
Q11: Diazonium salt is formed by treating primary amine with which Brønsted
acid?
Nitrous acid
Phosphorous acid
Sulphurous acid
Chlorous acid
Q12: Name the viral infection that is also known as ‘Shingles’ and causes
painful rashes or blisters on the skin.
Herpes Cytomegalo
Herpes Simplex
Herpes Zoster
Herpes Epstein-Barr
Q13: In which of the following years did Mamata Banerjee found All India
Trinamool Congress?
2001
1995
2003
1998
Q14: In which of the following cities of India was the three-day national
horticultural fair-2024 of the Indian Institute of Horticultural Research
(IIHR) on the theme ‘Nextgen technology led horticulture for sustainable
development’ organised in March 2024?
Bengaluru
Hyderabad
Panaji
Shillong
Q15: Reserpine, an indole alkaloid drug used to reduce high blood pressure,
is obtained from ______.
papayer somniferum
cinchona officinarum
rauvolfia serpentina
digitalis purpurea
Q16: The ______ has appellate jurisdiction on all subordinate courts in the
district.
Prime Minister of India
President of India
Vice President of India
District Court
Q17: To which Gharana did the renowned singer Girija Devi, known for her
‘Thumri’ renditions, belong?
Jaipur Gharana
Bhendi Bazaar Gharana
Indore Gharana
Benaras Gharana
Q18: Which edition of the Khelo India Para Games (KIPG) 2023 was held at New
Delhi in December 2023?
Second
Sixth
Inaugural
Fifth
Q19: Researchers at IIT Bombay developed an instrument named GoIDN for
mechanically recycling waste plastic polymers through ______.
pyrolysis
shredding
compression
melt mixing
Q20: Who among the following was appointed as the new Director General of
the Geological Survey of India (GSI) in June 2024?
Asit Saha
Sanjay Behari
L Murugan
Virendra Kumar
Q21: Who among the following had the shortest tenure as the President of
India?
Jawaharlal Nehru
Lal Bahadur Shastri
Zakir Husain
Rajendra Prasad
Q22: Which of the following falls in an area of low rainfall?
Bihar
Rajasthan
Meghalaya
Tamil Nadu
Q23: Which of the following states have a higher percentage of
multi-dimensionality poor?
Madhya Pradesh
Bihar
Jharkhand
Uttar Pradesh
Q24: Dinesh K Tripathi became the Chief of ______ in January 2024.
Armed Forces
Coast Guard
Air Force
Naval Staff
Q25: A saccharimeter is a type of ______.
pressure gauge
diffractometer
polarimeter
interferometer
Q26: Which of the following statements about the cardinal features of the
political system in India are correct? 1. It is a democratic
republic. 2. It has a Parliamentary form of government. 3. The
Supreme Power draws its power from the people of India. 4. It provides
for a unified authority.
Only 3 and 4
Only 1, 2 and 3
1, 2, 3 and 4
Only 1 and 2
Q27: According to the Census 2011, which of the following union territories
has the highest population growth?
Lakshadweep
Puducherry
Delhi
Daman and Diu
Q28: Bindusara ruled between which of the following periods?
293 B.C.E. to 271 B.C.E.
297 B.C.E. to 273 B.C.E.
299 B.C.E. to 275 B.C.E.
295 B.C.E. to 270 B.C.E.
Q29: Who among the following was associated with ‘Ulgulan movement’?
Tiroi Sing
Birsa Munda
Tilka Manjhi
Budriu Bhagat
Q30: Which of the following pairs (seasons and months, according to the
Indian Calendar) is INCORRECT?
Varsha : Sravana-Bhadra
Hemanta : Magha-Phalguna
Vasanta : Chaltra-Valsakha
Sharada : Asvina-Kartika
Q31: In which year did the Government of India launch the Smart Cities
Mission?
2018
2016
2017
2015
Q32: Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution refers to ______.
right to equality
freedom of speech and expression
cultural educational rights
right against exploitation
Q33: Pallavi, Anupallavi and Mukthayi-Svara, collectively known as Purvanga,
belong to which Carnatic music genre?
Gitam
Varnam
Suladi
Javali
Q34: Which of the following is a Foreign Bank?
BNP Paribas
Canara Bank
HDFC Bank
Axis Bank
Q35: Which of the following constitutional bodies is responsible for
ensuring Free and Fair Elections?
Election Commission of India
Parliament of India
Supreme Court of India
President of India
Q36: Which of the following parts of the Indian Constitution deals with the
Fundamental Duties?
Part V A
Part VI A
Part III A
Part IV A
Q37: Asia’s first pre-clinical network facility was inaugurated in which of
the following Indian cities in July 2024?
Lucknow
Chennai
Faridabad
Bhubaneswar
Q38: Match the following correctly.
Set-I
Set-II
a. Naathmuni
1. Sanak Sampradaya
b. Shankaracharya
2. Sri Vaishav Sampradaya
c. Raamanuj
3. Advait
d. Nimbark
4. Vishishtadvait
a - 3, b - 4, c - 1, d - 2
a - 3, b - 4, c - 2, d - 1
a - 2, b - 3, c - 4, d - 1
a - 4, b - 3, c - 2, d - 1
Q39: Which of the following places was made the capital of the Rashtrakutas
by Danitdurga?
Kannauj
Kanchi
Pataliputra
Manyakheta
Q40: What is the primary goal of fiscal consolidation?
Reducing Government debt
Stimulating economic growth
Increasing consumer expenditure
Reducing inflation
Q41: Who is author of the book ‘Rays and Ways of Indian Culture’?
Romila Thapar
Gayatri Sinha
DP Dubey
Jhumpa Lahiri
Q42: The members of the constituent assembly were elected by ______.
the British government
universal franchise
provincial legislatures
the eminent leaders of congress party
Q43: Indian para-athlete Sumit Antil won a gold medal in which event at the
Paris 2024 Paralympic Games?
Men's Shot Put
Men's Javelin Throw
Men's Club Throw
Men's High Jump
Q44: Which of the following indigenous tribes celebrates the Mopin festival?
Bhil tribe
Bhagalla tribe
Galo tribe
Pawra
Q45: As per the Census 2011, which of the following union territories has
the highest literacy rate?
Daman and Diu
Chandigarh
Delhi
Puducherry
Q46: The angle between the vector A = 3i + 6j – 2k and B = 4i – j + 3k is:
90°
30°
45°
60°
Q47: Who among the following founded Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty after winning
Kannauj in the tripartite struggle?
Rampal
Nagabhata I
Vatsaraja
Mihira Bhoja
Q48: Which of the following is NOT a Poverty Estimation Committee?
Alagh Committee
Kothari Committee
Tendulkar Committee
Lakdawala Committee
Q49: Who among the following woman social reformers, who educated at home at
Poona and published a book, ‘Stripurushtulna’?
Tarabai Shinde
Fatima Sheikh
Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain
Savithbai Phule
Q50: Which of the following is a significant challenge faced by microfinance
institutions in India?
Studying real exam questions from recent shifts offers three advantages:
1. Pattern Recognition: Identify recurring topics like
current affairs, Indian polity, or science.
2. Difficulty Benchmark: Understand if questions are
fact-based, conceptual, or application-oriented.
3. Revision Efficiency: Prioritize high-weightage areas
(e.g., government schemes, sports awards) for targeted preparation.
Pro Tip for Aspirants
Pair these questions with
daily current affairs updates (January–December 2024) and
static GK notes on history, geography, and the Indian Constitution. This combo
will strengthen your speed and accuracy!
How to Use These Questions Effectively
Daily Practice: Solve 10-15 questions daily to retain
facts.
Mock Tests: Mix these questions with other shifts’ GK
sets for a broader practice range.
Analyze Mistakes: Revisit incorrect answers and clarify
concepts immediately.
Final Thoughts
The RPF SI CBT 1 Exam demands consistent practice and
strategic preparation. By working through these
50 GK questions, you’ll build confidence and adaptability for
the actual test. Bookmark this post for quick revision, and pair it with our
topic-wise guides to cover all bases!
Next Steps
After mastering this shift’s questions, explore our posts for
3rd December, 2024 Shift 1, 3, and 4th December Shift 1, 2, 3 and others
Shifts of 2024 RRB RRB SI CBT-1 Shifts
to gain a complete understanding of the exam. Consistent practice with real
questions is your best tool for success!