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RRB RPF SI CBT-I GK: 3rd December, 2024 Shift 2| Practice Now

If you’re preparing for the RPF SI CBT 1 Exam 2025, practicing previous shifts’ questions can be a game-changer. This post shares the 50 General Knowledge (GK) questions from the total 120 questions asked in Shift 2 on 3rd December 2024 in RRB RPF SI CBT-I to help you gauge the exam’s scope, difficulty, and trending topics. This targeted resource is your key to unlocking a competitive edge, sharpening your readiness and confidence for the actual test.

RRB RPF SI CBT-I GK: 3rd December, 2024 Shift 2| Practice Now

Exam Overview (2024)

The RRB RPF SI CBT-1 exam evaluates candidates across 3 key subjects:

Subjects No. of Questions Marks
Basic Arithmetic 35 35
General Awareness 50 50
General Intelligence & Reasoning 35 35
Total 120 120

RRB RPF SI CBT-1 Paper: 03 December, 2024 Shift 2

  • Duration: 90 minutes.
  • Marks for Correct Answers: +1

  • Marks for Un-attempted Questions: 0

  • Negative Marking: 1/3 marks deducted for wrong answers.

  • Shift:1 (12:30 PM - 2:00 PM)
Practice Show All Answers
Q1: Excessive production of which of the following hormones in the body causes the Cushing's syndrome, leading to weight gain and thinning of the skin?
Melatonin
Vasopressin
Cortisol
Erythropoietin

Q2: In January 2015, the Government of India replaced the Planning Commission with:
NLCIL
ICICI
IDBI
NITI Aayog

Q3: How many Indian crew were present on oil tanker ‘Advantage Sweet’ which was seized by Iranian authorities in April 2023 and released in October 2023?
20
26
16
23

Q4: Jishnu Dev Varma, who was appointed as Governor of Telangana in July 2024, was the Former Deputy Chief Minister of which of the following states of India?
Tripura
Kerala
Madhya Pradesh
Mizoram

Q5: Which edition of the World Future Energy Summit was held in Abu Dhabi in April 2024?
16\(^\text{th}\)
12\(^\text{th}\)
14\(^\text{th}\)
20\(^\text{th}\)

Q6: What was India’s rank in the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) for 2023?
111
83
121
93

Q7: The Mumbai High Field (previously Bombay High Field) discovered by the Russian and Indian team from the seismic exploration vessel Academic Arkhangelsky in February 1974, commenced production in which year?
1975
1981
1976
1978

Q8: In which of the following years was GATT established?
1947
1948
1946
1949

Q9: Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands lie far from the equator and experience minimal rainfall.
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands have a temperate climate with sparse forest cover.
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are entirely made up of coral formations.
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are strategically important and have great diversity in flora and fauna.

Q10: The Indian Navy’s trilateral exercise known as ‘IMT TRILAT’ was held jointly with:
Mozambique and Tanzania
Egypt and Zimbabwe
Nigeria and Uganda
Sudan and Ethiopia

Q11: Diazonium salt is formed by treating primary amine with which Brønsted acid?
Nitrous acid
Phosphorous acid
Sulphurous acid
Chlorous acid

Q12: Name the viral infection that is also known as ‘Shingles’ and causes painful rashes or blisters on the skin.
Herpes Cytomegalo
Herpes Simplex
Herpes Zoster
Herpes Epstein-Barr

Q13: In which of the following years did Mamata Banerjee found All India Trinamool Congress?
2001
1995
2003
1998

Q14: In which of the following cities of India was the three-day national horticultural fair-2024 of the Indian Institute of Horticultural Research (IIHR) on the theme ‘Nextgen technology led horticulture for sustainable development’ organised in March 2024?
Bengaluru
Hyderabad
Panaji
Shillong

Q15: Reserpine, an indole alkaloid drug used to reduce high blood pressure, is obtained from ______.
papayer somniferum
cinchona officinarum
rauvolfia serpentina
digitalis purpurea

Q16: The ______ has appellate jurisdiction on all subordinate courts in the district.
Prime Minister of India
President of India
Vice President of India
District Court

Q17: To which Gharana did the renowned singer Girija Devi, known for her ‘Thumri’ renditions, belong?
Jaipur Gharana
Bhendi Bazaar Gharana
Indore Gharana
Benaras Gharana

Q18: Which edition of the Khelo India Para Games (KIPG) 2023 was held at New Delhi in December 2023?
Second
Sixth
Inaugural
Fifth

Q19: Researchers at IIT Bombay developed an instrument named GoIDN for mechanically recycling waste plastic polymers through ______.
pyrolysis
shredding
compression
melt mixing

Q20: Who among the following was appointed as the new Director General of the Geological Survey of India (GSI) in June 2024?
Asit Saha
Sanjay Behari
L Murugan
Virendra Kumar

Q21: Who among the following had the shortest tenure as the President of India?
Jawaharlal Nehru
Lal Bahadur Shastri
Zakir Husain
Rajendra Prasad

Q22: Which of the following falls in an area of low rainfall?
Bihar
Rajasthan
Meghalaya
Tamil Nadu

Q23: Which of the following states have a higher percentage of multi-dimensionality poor?
Madhya Pradesh
Bihar
Jharkhand
Uttar Pradesh

Q24: Dinesh K Tripathi became the Chief of ______ in January 2024.
Armed Forces
Coast Guard
Air Force
Naval Staff

Q25: A saccharimeter is a type of ______.
pressure gauge
diffractometer
polarimeter
interferometer

Q26: Which of the following statements about the cardinal features of the political system in India are correct?
1. It is a democratic republic.
2. It has a Parliamentary form of government.
3. The Supreme Power draws its power from the people of India.
4. It provides for a unified authority.
Only 3 and 4
Only 1, 2 and 3
1, 2, 3 and 4
Only 1 and 2

Q27: According to the Census 2011, which of the following union territories has the highest population growth?
Lakshadweep
Puducherry
Delhi
Daman and Diu

Q28: Bindusara ruled between which of the following periods?
293 B.C.E. to 271 B.C.E.
297 B.C.E. to 273 B.C.E.
299 B.C.E. to 275 B.C.E.
295 B.C.E. to 270 B.C.E.

Q29: Who among the following was associated with ‘Ulgulan movement’?
Tiroi Sing
Birsa Munda
Tilka Manjhi
Budriu Bhagat

Q30: Which of the following pairs (seasons and months, according to the Indian Calendar) is INCORRECT?
Varsha : Sravana-Bhadra
Hemanta : Magha-Phalguna
Vasanta : Chaltra-Valsakha
Sharada : Asvina-Kartika

Q31: In which year did the Government of India launch the Smart Cities Mission?
2018
2016
2017
2015

Q32: Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution refers to ______.
right to equality
freedom of speech and expression
cultural educational rights
right against exploitation

Q33: Pallavi, Anupallavi and Mukthayi-Svara, collectively known as Purvanga, belong to which Carnatic music genre?
Gitam
Varnam
Suladi
Javali

Q34: Which of the following is a Foreign Bank?
BNP Paribas
Canara Bank
HDFC Bank
Axis Bank

Q35: Which of the following constitutional bodies is responsible for ensuring Free and Fair Elections?
Election Commission of India
Parliament of India
Supreme Court of India
President of India

Q36: Which of the following parts of the Indian Constitution deals with the Fundamental Duties?
Part V A
Part VI A
Part III A
Part IV A

Q37: Asia’s first pre-clinical network facility was inaugurated in which of the following Indian cities in July 2024?
Lucknow
Chennai
Faridabad
Bhubaneswar

Q38: Match the following correctly.
Set-I Set-II
a. Naathmuni 1. Sanak Sampradaya
b. Shankaracharya 2. Sri Vaishav Sampradaya
c. Raamanuj 3. Advait
d. Nimbark 4. Vishishtadvait
a - 3, b - 4, c - 1, d - 2
a - 3, b - 4, c - 2, d - 1
a - 2, b - 3, c - 4, d - 1
a - 4, b - 3, c - 2, d - 1

Q39: Which of the following places was made the capital of the Rashtrakutas by Danitdurga?
Kannauj
Kanchi
Pataliputra
Manyakheta

Q40: What is the primary goal of fiscal consolidation?
Reducing Government debt
Stimulating economic growth
Increasing consumer expenditure
Reducing inflation

Q41: Who is author of the book ‘Rays and Ways of Indian Culture’?
Romila Thapar
Gayatri Sinha
DP Dubey
Jhumpa Lahiri

Q42: The members of the constituent assembly were elected by ______.
the British government
universal franchise
provincial legislatures
the eminent leaders of congress party

Q43: Indian para-athlete Sumit Antil won a gold medal in which event at the Paris 2024 Paralympic Games?
Men's Shot Put
Men's Javelin Throw
Men's Club Throw
Men's High Jump

Q44: Which of the following indigenous tribes celebrates the Mopin festival?
Bhil tribe
Bhagalla tribe
Galo tribe
Pawra

Q45: As per the Census 2011, which of the following union territories has the highest literacy rate?
Daman and Diu
Chandigarh
Delhi
Puducherry

Q46: The angle between the vector A = 3i + 6j – 2k and B = 4i – j + 3k is:
90°
30°
45°
60°

Q47: Who among the following founded Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty after winning Kannauj in the tripartite struggle?
Rampal
Nagabhata I
Vatsaraja
Mihira Bhoja

Q48: Which of the following is NOT a Poverty Estimation Committee?
Alagh Committee
Kothari Committee
Tendulkar Committee
Lakdawala Committee

Q49: Who among the following woman social reformers, who educated at home at Poona and published a book, ‘Stripurushtulna’?
Tarabai Shinde
Fatima Sheikh
Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain
Savithbai Phule

Q50: Which of the following is a significant challenge faced by microfinance institutions in India?
Regulatory changes impacting operational flexibility
High repayment rates by borrowers
An oversupply of funds from international donors
Lack of interest from rural populations

Report Card

Total Questions Attempted: 0

Correct Answers: 0

Wrong Answers: 0

Keep Practicing!


Why These Questions Matter

Studying real exam questions from recent shifts offers three advantages:

1. Pattern Recognition: Identify recurring topics like current affairs, Indian polity, or science.

2. Difficulty Benchmark: Understand if questions are fact-based, conceptual, or application-oriented.

3. Revision Efficiency: Prioritize high-weightage areas (e.g., government schemes, sports awards) for targeted preparation.

Pro Tip for Aspirants

Pair these questions with daily current affairs updates (January–December 2024) and static GK notes on history, geography, and the Indian Constitution. This combo will strengthen your speed and accuracy!

How to Use These Questions Effectively

  • Daily Practice: Solve 10-15 questions daily to retain facts.

  • Mock Tests: Mix these questions with other shifts’ GK sets for a broader practice range.

  • Analyze Mistakes: Revisit incorrect answers and clarify concepts immediately.

Final Thoughts

The RPF SI CBT 1 Exam demands consistent practice and strategic preparation. By working through these 50 GK questions, you’ll build confidence and adaptability for the actual test. Bookmark this post for quick revision, and pair it with our topic-wise guides to cover all bases!

Next Steps

After mastering this shift’s questions, explore our posts for 3rd December, 2024 Shift 1, 3, and 4th December Shift 1, 2, 3 and others Shifts of 2024 RRB RRB SI CBT-1 Shifts to gain a complete understanding of the exam. Consistent practice with real questions is your best tool for success!