Are you targeting the RRB JE CBT-1 Exam 2025? Practicing previous shifts’ questions is the ultimate strategy to outrank competitors! This post delivers 45 high-impact GK questions (out of 100) from Shift 2 on 17th December 2024, offering a blueprint to decode the exam’s scope, difficulty level, and trending topics.
Exam Overview for RRB JE CBT 1 Exam Pattern (2025)
The RRB JE CBT 1 Exam evaluates candidates across 4 key subjects:
| Subjects | No. of Questions | Marks for each Section |
|---|---|---|
| Mathematics | 30 | 30 |
| General Intelligence & Reasoning | 25 | 25 |
| General Awareness | 15 | 15 |
| General Science | 30 | 30 |
| Total | 100 | 100 |
| Time in Minutes | 90 |
RRB JE CBT 1 Exam Paper: 17 December, 2024 Shift 2
- Duration: 90 minutes.
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Marks for Correct Answers: +1
-
Marks for Un-attempted Questions: 0
-
Negative Marking: 1/3 marks deducted for wrong answers.
- Shift:1 (12:45 PM - 2:15 PM)
Practice
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Q1: Which of the following is a primary reason why all multi-cellular
organisms do not reproduce by fragmentation?
Their cells are loosely organised.
They are unicellular.
They have a random arrangement of cells.
They have specialised cells organised into tissues and organs.
Q2: Which of the following is true about asexual reproduction?
It results in offspring genetically identical to the parent.
It requires fertilisation.
It involves two parent organisms.
It requires complex reproductive organs.
Q3: For a concave mirror, where is the centre of curvature located relative
to the mirror?
At the mirror’s surface
Behind the mirror
In front of the mirror
At the mirror’s focal point
Q4: In which language was the classic Indian novel 'Chandrakanta' originally
written?
Bengali
Hindi
Tamil
Urdu
Q5: Which of the following is NOT a homologous series?
\( C_3H_7OH \), \( C_4H_9OH \), \( C_5H_{11}OH \), \( C_6H_{11}OH \)
\( CH_4 \), \( C_2H_6 \), \( C_3H_8 \), \( C_4H_{10} \)
\( C_2H_2 \), \( C_2H_4 \), \( C_3H_6 \), \( C_4H_8 \)
\( C_2H_4 \), \( C_2H_6 \), \( C_3H_6 \), \( C_4H_8 \)
Q6: A double displacement reaction typically involves the exchange of:
ions
electrons
protons
neutrons
Q7: When a metal and sulphuric acid react with each other, metal displaces
hydrogen, which is higher in the reactivity series. Identify the metal for
which the bubbling of hydrogen gas will be the fastest.
Magnesium
Iron
Aluminium
Zinc
Q8: If the resistance in a circuit is increased while the voltage remains
constant, the current will ______.
double
increase
decrease
remain constant
Q9: What is the molecular formula of washing soda?
NaHCO₃
Na₂CO₃·10H₂O
Na₂CO₃
NaCl
Q10: Correctly match the following Biosphere Reserves to their respective
states.
Biosphere Reserves States
1. Nokrek a. Meghalaya
2. Panna b. Madhya Pradesh
3. Manas c. Assam
1-a, 2-b, 3-c
1-a, 2-c, 3-b
1-c, 2-b, 3-a
1-b, 2-a, 3-c
Q11: What is the pH of a solution containing significant concentrations of
\(H^+\) ions?
7
Less than 7
Greater than 7
Cannot be determined
Q12: With respect to Quad Leaders’ Summit, which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1) The Quad Leaders’ Summit was held in Wilmington (US) in 2024.
2) The year 2024 marks 22 years since the formation of the grouping.
3) India will host the 2025 Quad Leaders Summit.
1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
1 only
2 and 3 only
Q13: How many members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President of
India?
15
8
10
12
Q14: Which of the following is true for a balanced chemical equation?
The total number of atoms for each element is the same on both sides of the
equation.
The products have more atoms than the reactants.
The mass of reactants is always greater than the mass of products.
The number of molecules on each side is always equal.
Q15: Which of the following is true regarding a magnet?
A magnet is a dipole with north and south poles.
A magnet produces magnetic as well as electric fields.
A magnet can attract an electron.
A magnet can have either north or south pole.
Q16: In surgical procedures for contraception in males, sperm transfer gets
prevented if which of the following is blocked?
Ovary
Fallopian tubes
Testes
Vas deferens
Q17: What develops into fruit after fertilisation?
Style
Stigma
Anther
Ovary
Q18: Which status was conferred upon Shipping Corporation of India (SCI) by
the Government of India in August 2008?
Miniatna
Dashratna
Maharatna
Navratna
Q19: When the pH of rainwater falls below 5.6, it is commonly referred to
as:
alkaline rain
acid rain
mineral rain
hard water
Q20: What is the primary reason for a central bank to increase the reserve
requirement ratio of commercial banks?
To decrease the money supply in the economy
To increase the money supply in the economy
To decrease the profitability of commercial banks
To encourage banks to lend more
Q21: Which of the following statements best describes what happens in a
double displacement reaction?
Two elements combine to form a compound.
A compound breaks down into simpler substances.
Electrons are transferred between atoms.
Ions in two compounds switch places to form two new compounds.
Q22: Which of the following is one of the main attractions of ‘Mamallapuram’
apart from the dance festival?
Modern art galleries
Local handicrafts
Wildlife sanctuaries
Architectural beauty of temples
Q23: If the refractive index of water is 1.33, then the speed of light in
water is approximately ______.
3×10\(^8\) m/s
1.5×10\(^8\) m/s
2.26×10\(^8\) m/s
4×10\(^8\) m/s
Q24: What is the result when sodium chloride and silver nitrate are mixed in
a double displacement reaction?
Formation of water
Formation of a precipitate
Formation of a gas
Formation of a salt
Q25: If the object is placed beyond the center of curvature (C) in front of
a concave mirror, the image formed will be ______.
virtual, upright and diminished
real, inverted and enlarged
virtual, upright and enlarged
real, inverted and diminished
Q26: The special reproductive structures in fungi like Rhizopus, which
germinate to form new individuals, are called:
Anthers
Spores
Gemmules
Pollens
Q27: What are the number of chromosomes in a human male germ cell?
46 pairs of Chromosomes
23 Chromosomes
23 pairs of Chromosomes
46 Chromosomes
Q28: The magnetic field lines of a bar magnet may NOT be drawn using:
Iron filings
a magnetic compass
wood particles
another bar magnet
Q29: A wire of given material having length L and area of cross-section A
has a resistance of 4 \(\Omega\). The resistance of another wire of the same
material having length L/2 will be:
4 \(\Omega\)
1 \(\Omega\)
8 \(\Omega\)
2 \(\Omega\)
Q30: Which electrical appliance helps preserve food by maintaining low
temperatures?
Toaster
Electric kettle
Microwave
Refrigerator
Q31: What is the difference between baking powder and baking soda?
Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda and hydrochloric acid.
Baking soda is a mixture of baking powder and tartaric acid.
Baking soda is a mixture of baking powder and hydrochloric acid.
Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda and tartaric acid.
Q32: Which of the following diseases can be prevented by using a mechanical
barrier contraceptive method?
AIDS
Typhoid
TB
Malaria
Q33: Which of the following statements about AIDS is FALSE?
AIDS affects the immune system of the body.
AIDS is caused by the HIV virus.
AIDS can be transmitted through mosquito bites.
AIDS can be prevented by practising safe sex.
Q34: Besides being a barrier method of contraception, condoms also serve
which of the following purposes?
Help in transmission of STDs such as gonorrhoea
Prevent transmission of STDs such as gonorrhoea
Prevent diseases that spread through skin-to-skin contact
Decrease sexual desire
Q35: Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) was founded in 1928
in which of the following cities?
Pune
Calcutta
Lahore
Delhi
Q36: Which of the following statements is true regarding the refractive
index?
Refractive index of water is always greater than 1.
Refractive index depends only on the speed of light in vacuum.
Refractive index of glass is less than 1.
Refractive index of a given medium is independent of the wavelength of the
light.
Q37: In Delhi Sultanate, the holder of an ‘iqta’, who also worked as the
administrative head of his ‘iqta’, was designated as ______.
muqti
qazi
ariz
wazir
Q38: Which of the following Ministries launched the electric mobility
promotion scheme in March 2024 to provide short term support to Electric
Vehicles?
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Ministry of Heavy Industries
Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
Q39: The number of 176-\(\Omega\) resistors (in parallel) required to carry
5 A on a 220-V line is:
2
8
4
16
Q40: Students and professors of which IIT have developed an innovative fire
rescue drone in June 2024?
IIT Delhi
IIT Madras
IIT Dharwad
IIT Mandi
Q41: Which of the following rights is NOT part of the Right to Life under
Article 21 of the Indian Constitution?
Right to Privacy
Right to Free Legal Aid
Right to Property
Right to Livelihood
Q42: Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution states that
there shall be a Legislative Assembly for the National Capital Territory and
the seats in such Assembly shall be filled by members chosen by direct
election from territorial constituencies in the National Capital Territory?
Article 239 B
Article 239 AA
Article 239 AB
Article 239A
Q43:
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about the Annual Financial
Statement 2024-25?
1) The Budget 2024-25 will focus on four castes.
2) 1 crore farmers across the country will be initiated into natural
farming, supported by certification and branding in the next 2 years.
3) 20,000 need-based bio-input resource centres to be established.
4) 1,000 Industrial Training Institutes will be upgraded in hub and spoke
arrangements with outcome orientation.
1 only
3 only
4 only
2 only
Q44: Kapil Parmar created history by securing India’s first-ever medal in
which game at the Paralympic Games 2024?
Judo
Shooting
Fencing
Table Tennis
Q45: Mendel studied traits such as flower colour and seed shape in pea
plants. These traits are called as:
genetic codes
dominant characteristics
progeny units
visible characters
Report Card
Total Questions Attempted: 0
Correct Answers: 0
Wrong Answers: 0
Keep Practicing!
Why These Questions Matter
Studying real exam questions from recent shifts offers three advantages:
1. Pattern Recognition: Identify recurring topics like current affairs, Indian polity, or science.
2. Difficulty Benchmark: Understand if questions are fact-based, conceptual, or application-oriented.
3. Revision Efficiency: Prioritize high-weightage areas (e.g., government schemes, sports awards) for targeted preparation.
Pro Tip for Aspirants
Pair these questions with daily current affairs updates (January–December 2024) and static GK notes on history, geography, and the Indian Constitution. This combo will strengthen your speed and accuracy!
How to Use These Questions Effectively
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Daily Practice: Solve 10-15 questions daily to retain facts.
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Mock Tests: Mix these questions with other shifts’ GK sets for a broader practice range.
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Analyze Mistakes: Revisit incorrect answers and clarify concepts immediately.
Final Thoughts
The RRB JE CBT-1 Exam demands consistent practice and strategic preparation. By working through these 50 GK questions, you’ll build confidence and adaptability for the actual test. Bookmark this post for quick revision, and pair it with our topic-wise guides to cover all bases!
Next Steps
After mastering this shift’s questions, explore our posts for
17th December, 2024 Shift 1, 3, and 18th December Shift 1, 2, 3 and others
Shifts of 2024 RRB JE CBT-1 Shifts
to gain a complete understanding of the exam. Consistent practice with real
questions is your best tool for success!