Are you targeting the RRB JE CBT-1 Exam 2025? Practicing previous shifts’ questions is the ultimate strategy to outrank competitors! This post delivers 45 high-impact GK questions (out of 100) from Shift 1 on 17th December 2024, offering a blueprint to decode the exam’s scope, difficulty level, and trending topics.
Exam Overview for RRB JE CBT 1 Exam Pattern (2025)
The RRB JE CBT 1 Exam evaluates candidates across 4 key subjects:
| Subjects | No. of Questions | Marks for each Section |
|---|---|---|
| Mathematics | 30 | 30 |
| General Intelligence & Reasoning | 25 | 25 |
| General Awareness | 15 | 15 |
| General Science | 30 | 30 |
| Total | 100 | 100 |
| Time in Minutes | 90 |
RRB JE CBT 1 Exam Paper: 17 December, 2024 Shift 1
- Duration: 90 minutes.
-
Marks for Correct Answers: +1
-
Marks for Un-attempted Questions: 0
-
Negative Marking: 1/3 marks deducted for wrong answers.
- Shift:1 (9:00 AM - 10:30 AM)
Practice
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Q1: Who among the following was the first attorney General of Independent
India?
SV Gupta
Niren de
Soli Sorabjee
MC Setalvad
Q2: Which of the following is NOT an essential qualification for being
elected as the President?
Qualified for election as a member of the House of the People
Highly educated
Completion of 35 years
Citizen of India
Q3: The first fundamental factor for evolution is:
competition among individuals
genetic variation
healthy offsprings
cell division for growth
Q4: In which process multicellular organisms break into smaller pieces upon
maturation?
Fragmentation
Sporulation
Regeneration
Fission
Q5: Which of the following is an example of a natural monopoly?
Malls
Apple store in delhi
Bookshop
Railways
Q6: Pollen grains are transferred to which part of pistil?
Ovary
Style
Oxule
Stigma
Q7: Which of the following was the venue of the 46th session of the UNESCO WorldHeritage Committee?
New York, United States
Paris, France
New Delhi, India
Dubai, United Arab Emirates
Q8: Which of the following is the National Waterway 2 in India?
West Coast canal and Champakara and Udyogmandal canals
East Coast canal and Matai river
Kakinada canal (Kakinada to Rajahmundry)
Brahmaputra river
Q9: In the reaction: Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu, what happens to zinc?
Zinc is reduced.
Zinc is oxidised.
Zinc does not change.
Zinc loses electrons.
Q10: Samples of four metals A, B, C and D were taken and added to a solution
individually.
The results obtained have been listed as follows.
A can displace B from its solution.
B can displace D from its solution.
C can displace D from its solution.
C can displace A from its solution.
Which is the most reactive metal?
D
C
A
B
Q11: Which of these is NOT a property of magnetic field lines?
They repel each other.
They are continuous closed loops.
They travel from south to north inside the magnet.
They never intersect.
Q12: What is the role of the ovary in the process of fertilisation in
plants?
To produce pollen
To provide nutrients to the pollen grains
To produce the egg cell
To store the male gametes
Q13: If an image is formed by a spherical mirror with a magnification of +1,
which of thefollowing statements is true?
The image is virtual and half the size of the object.
The image is real and equal in size to the object.
The image is real and twice the size of the object.
The image is virtual and equal in size to the object.
Q14: When several resistors are joined in series, the equivalent resistance
of the combination is:
equal to the sum of the individual resistances
greater than the sum of the individual resistances
equal to the product of the individual resistances
less than the sum of the individual resistances
Q15: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Amit Shah assumed charge as Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation
in June 2024.
Om Birla is elected as the Speaker of the 18[th] Lok Sabha.
Narendra Modi took oath as the Prime Minister of India in June 2024.
Sonia Gandhi became the Leader of Opposition in the 18[th] Lok Sabha.
Q16: In the process of vegetative propagation, which part of the plant is
used in grafting?
Root
Seed
Leaf
Stem
Q17: Which of the following rivers is ephemeral?
Beas
Chambal
Yamuna
Luni
Q18: A piece of zinc is placed in three different solutions: lead nitrate,
aluminium sulphate and silver nitrate.
Which solution(s) will zinc be able to displace the metal from its
solution?
Aluminium sulphate and silver nitrate
Lead nitrate and silver nitrate
Only silver nitrate
Lead nitrate and aluminium sulphate
Q19: The concepts no double jeopardy, no self incrimination and no ex post
facto are mentioned under _____ of the Indian Constitution.
Article 20
Article 21
Article 19
Article 23
Q20: One of the famous Kali temples in India, Kalighat, is located in which
of the followingIndian states?
West Bengal
Maharastra
Odisha
Assam
Q21: An electric fan is connected to a 220 V generator. The current is 0.50
A. What is thepower used by the fan?
11 Watt
440 Watt
220 Watt
110 Watt
Q22: An object is placed 12 cm in front of a convex mirror with a focal
length of 8 cm. What is the image distance (v)?
+4.8 cm
−4.8 cm
+20 cm
- 20 cm
Q23: Which of the following statements is true about the physical properties
of compoundsin a homologous series?
They have identical melting and boiling points.
They have a regular change in melting and boiling points.
Their boiling points decrease as the number of carbon atoms increase.
Their physical properties do not change.
Q24: Which of the following statements is true for a balanced chemical
equation?
The total mass of molecules is unequal on both sides.
The total number of molecules is the same on both sides.
The total number of moles is the same on both sides.
The total number of atoms of each element is the same on both sides.
Q25: What is formed when sodium sulfate reacts with barium chloride in a
double displacement reaction?
Sodium sulfate and barium chloride
Sodium chloride and barium hydroxide
Sodium chloride and barium sulfate
Sodium hydroxide and barium chloride
Q26: Suppose a gardener wants to plant pea which should be of the dwarf
varieties. What do you suggest for the choice of the parent plant seeds by
the gardener?
All seeds should be of tall varieties.
Any kind of seed can be used.
All seeds should be of dwarf varieties.
All seeds should be of mixed varieties.
Q27: The balanced equation which shows the decomposition of hydrogen
peroxide is:
2H₂O₂ → 2H₂O + O₂
2HO₂ → 2HO + O₂
H₂O₂ → 2H₂O + O₂
H₂O₂ → H₂O + O₂
Q28: Which of the following best describes a common industrial use of
washing soda?
Fertiliser manufacturing
Cement production
Glass manufacturing
Vinegar production
Q29: 20 ml of NaOH is neutralised by 10 ml of HNO3. How much NaOH will be required to neutralise 15 ml of HNO3 ?
20 ml
25 ml
40 ml
30 ml
Q30: The pattern of the magnetic field lines of a solenoid is similar to
that of a:
bar magnet
horseshoe magnet
button magnet
ring magnet
Q31: Which of the following received the top honour in the Best Urban Local
Body category at the 5th National Water Awards for its innovative water
conservation initiatives?
Pune, Maharashtra
Indore, Madhya Pradesh
Surat, Gujarat
Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
Q32: Mendel had selected garden pea for certain favourable reasons. Which of
the following is NOT a reason for his choice required for his experiments?
They can be self-pollinated and cross-pollinated.
They produce many offsprings.
They have easily observable traits.
They have a long generation time.
Q33: How do hormonal contraceptives prevent pregnancy?
By creating a physical barrier
By blocking the fallopian tubes
By increasing sperm production
By changing the hormonal balance to prevent egg release
Q34: Seeds that are dispersed by animals often:
have hooks or edible flesh
are very small and light weight
can float easily in water
have wings or parachutes
Q35: Quwwat-al-islam mosque is located in which of the following cities?
Hyderabad
New Delhi
Sikar
Ajmer
Q36: Why are danger signals typically red in colour?
Red light has a longer wavelength and is scattered the least, making it
visible from a distance.
Red light is more reflective than other colours.
Red light is easier to produce artificially.
The colour red is aesthetically pleasing.
Q37: What was the name of the movement started in 1927 in Maharashtra, led
by Dr. BR Ambedkar to access public resources such as water bodies, temples
and schools?
Shahada Movement
Bombay Peasants Revolt
Kheda Satyagraha
Mahad Satyagraha
Q38: Which of the following describes the relationship between the aperture
of a lens and its radius of curvature in the context of thin lenses?
The aperture is independent of the radius of curvature.
The aperture is much larger than the radius of curvature.
The aperture is much smaller than the radius of curvature.
The aperture equals the radius of curvature.
Q39: Which combination of factors would result in the lowest resistance for
a conductor?
Short length and large cross-sectional area
Long length and small cross-sectional area
Short length and small cross-sectional area
Long length and large cross-sectional area
Q40: Equipment such as geysers and air conditioners, compared to light bulbs
and fans, require:
higher voltage
less power
less voltage
higher power
Q41: Which Indian cricketer was appointed as the brand ambassador for MotoGP
in India in July 2024?
Rohit Sharma
Jasprit Bumrah
Shikhar Dhawan
Virat Kohli
Q42: Which of the following statements is NOT a reason for the versatile
nature of carbon?
Carbon exhibits catenation
Carbon can form ionic bonds with itself
Carbon has tetravalency
Carbon can form single, double, and triple bonds
Q43: The National Health Authority (NHA) and ______ signed a Memorandum of
Understanding (MoU) on 11th September. The partnership aims to revolutionise
artificial intelligence in health research with an innovative data platform.
IIT Kharagpur
IIT Delhi
IIT Madras
IIT Kanpur
Q44: What are the two versions of a gene controlling a trait called?
Chromosomes
Proteins
Mutations
Alleles
Q45: Who is the author of "Postcolonial Elements in Amitav Ghosh's 'The
Shadow Lines,'" published in 2018?
Arundhati Roy
Salman Rushdie
Nivedhaa Nivi
Amitav Ghosh
Report Card
Total Questions Attempted: 0
Correct Answers: 0
Wrong Answers: 0
Keep Practicing!
Why These Questions Matter
Studying real exam questions from recent shifts offers three advantages:
1. Pattern Recognition: Identify recurring topics like current affairs, Indian polity, or science.
2. Difficulty Benchmark: Understand if questions are fact-based, conceptual, or application-oriented.
3. Revision Efficiency: Prioritize high-weightage areas (e.g., government schemes, sports awards) for targeted preparation.
Pro Tip for Aspirants
Pair these questions with daily current affairs updates (January–December 2024) and static GK notes on history, geography, and the Indian Constitution. This combo will strengthen your speed and accuracy!
How to Use These Questions Effectively
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Daily Practice: Solve 10-15 questions daily to retain facts.
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Mock Tests: Mix these questions with other shifts’ GK sets for a broader practice range.
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Analyze Mistakes: Revisit incorrect answers and clarify concepts immediately.
Final Thoughts
The RRB JE CBT-1 Exam demands consistent practice and strategic preparation. By working through these 50 GK questions, you’ll build confidence and adaptability for the actual test. Bookmark this post for quick revision, and pair it with our topic-wise guides to cover all bases!
Next Steps
After mastering this shift’s questions, explore our posts for
17th December, 2024 Shift 2, 3, and 18th December Shift 1, 2, 3 and others
Shifts of 2024 RRB JE CBT-1 Shifts
to gain a complete understanding of the exam. Consistent practice with real
questions is your best tool for success!