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RRB JE CBT-1 Exam GK: 16 December, 2024 Shift 3| Practice Now

Are you targeting the RRB JE CBT-1 Exam 2025? Practicing previous shifts’ questions is the ultimate strategy to outrank competitors! This post delivers 45 high-impact GK questions (out of 100) from Shift 3 on 16th December 2024, offering a blueprint to decode the exam’s scope, difficulty level, and trending topics.

RRB JE CBT-1 Exam GK: 16 December, 2024 Shift 3| Practice Now

Exam Overview for RRB JE CBT 1 Exam Pattern (2025)

The RRB JE CBT 1 Exam evaluates candidates across 4 key subjects:

Subjects No. of Questions Marks for each Section
Mathematics 30 30
General Intelligence & Reasoning 25 25
General Awareness 15 15
General Science 30 30
Total 100 100
Time in Minutes 90

RRB JE CBT 1 Exam Paper: 16 December, 2024 Shift 3

  • Duration: 90 minutes.
  • Marks for Correct Answers: +1

  • Marks for Un-attempted Questions: 0

  • Negative Marking: 1/3 marks deducted for wrong answers.

  • Shift:1 (4:30 PM - 6:00 PM)
Practice Show All Answers
Q1: In the reaction MnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + 2H₂O + Cl₂, what is being reduced?
Chlorine (Cl)
Manganese (Mn)
Oxygen (O)
Hydrogen (H)

Q2: Who is the author of ‘Segar: Autobiography with Paintings,’ published in 2013?
Salman Rushdie
D Raja Segar
Jhumpa Lahiri
Githa Hariharan

Q3: Which factor does NOT affect the electric power consumed by an electric device?
Resistance of the device
Voltage applied to the device
Frequency of the device
Current passing through the device

Q4: Which of the following factors directly affects the resistance of a conductor?
Length of the conductor
Current through the conductor
Power of the conductor
Voltage across the conductor

Q5: After fertilisation, the zygote divides multiple times to form which structure within the ovule?
Style
Embryo
Seed
Fruit

Q6: According to the Citizenship Amendment Act of 2019, individuals who entered India on or before ______ and belong to the Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi or Christian community from Pakistan, Afghanistan or Bangladesh are eligible for citizenship.
31 December 2017
31 December 2016
31 December 2014
31 December 2015

Q7: Which of the following are the 6 accounts that have a role in the economic classification of the budget?
Accounts 1 to 6: Transaction in commodities and services and transfers
Accounts A to F: Transaction in goods, services, and capital
Accounts I to VI: Transaction in commodities, revenue, and capital
Accounts X to XV: Transaction in current and capital assets

Q8: Which of the following metals is least likely to corrode in moist air?
Magnesium
Zinc
Copper
Iron

Q9: In plants, spore formation is a mode of reproduction that involves the production of  spores. Which of the following statements about spore formation is true?
Spores are produced by flowers, and they grow into seeds.
Spores are a form of vegetative propagation in angiosperms only.
Spores are produced by non-flowering plants like ferns and mosses, and they grow into new plants.
Spores are formed through sexual reproduction in plants.

Q10: Double displacement reactions usually occur in:
aqueous solution
gaseous state
solid state
all three states

Q11: At which of the following places is the tomb of Sher Shah located?
Patna
Lahore
Agra
Sasaram

Q12: Who among the following is the leader of the house in the Lok Sabha?
Opposition Leader
Prime Minister
President of India
Lok Sabha Speaker

Q13: Which of the following is the correct formula for the first member of the alkene series?
C\(_5\)H\(_{10}\)
C\(_3\)H\(_6\)
C\(_4\)H\(_8\)
C\(_2\)H\(_4\)

Q14: Which of the following helps a developing embryo to expel waste products in case of humans?
Oviduct
Placenta
Ovary
Cervix

Q15: What is the role of the stigma in the process of fertilisation?
Fusing with the egg cell
Producing pollen
Developing into a seed
Serving as the site where pollen lands

Q16: Covalent molecules have low melting and boiling point because:
they have strong electrostatic intermolecular forces
they have weak intermolecular forces
they are generally gaseous in nature
they have strong bonds within the molecule

Q17: Which of the following statements is/are correct about the PM Vishwakarma Yojana?
1) The PM Vishwakarma Yojana was launched by the Hon’ble Prime Minister on 17 September 2023.
2) Scheme aims to provide end-to-end support to artisans and craftspeople who work with their hands and tools.
3) The Scheme components include recognition through PM Vishwakarma Certificate and ID Card, Skill Upgradation, Toolkit Incentive, Credit Support, Incentive for Digital Transactions, and Marketing Support.
2 only
3 only
1 only
1, 2 and 3

Q18: If two resistors in series are equal, say R each, what is the total resistance?
R2
R/2
2R
R

Q19: Resistance is the property of a material that _______.
generates electricity
allows the flow of current
opposes the flow of current
converts electrical energy to mechanical energy

Q20: Who among the following secured a gold medal for India at the Paris Paralympics 2024?
Sachin Khilari
Hokato Hotozhe Sema
Pranav Soorma
Navdeep Singh

Q21: In which of the following scenarios does the focal length of a concave mirror vary?
When placed in air
When placed in water
Focal length does not vary in any media
When placed in a vacuum

Q22: Why might surgical family planning methods be risky if not done correctly?
They can increase fertility.
They can lead to infections or complications.
They may cause hormonal side effects
They might prevent ovulation.

Q23: Which of the following chemical equations is balanced?
H\(_2\) + 2O\(_2\) → 2H\(_2\)O
H\(_2\)O + O\(_2\) → H\(_2\)O\(_2\)
H\(_2\) + O\(_2\) → H\(_2\)O
2H\(_2\) + O\(_2\) → 2H\(_2\)O

Q24: The knowledge of which two subjects played key role in formulating laws of inheritance?
Maths and History
Philosophy and Science
Geography and Philosophy
Maths and Science

Q25: Which of the following best describes a combination reaction?
A reaction where a product releases gas
Two elements combine to form a compound
Ions exchange between two compounds
A compound breaks down into simpler substances

Q26: What is the thread-like structure in Rhizopus?
Sporangia
Spores
Blobs
Hyphae

Q27: Why does a compass needle get deflected when brought near a bar magnet?
The compass needle is a small bar magnet.
The compass needle is non-magnetic.
The compass needle has electric charge.
The compass needle is made of iron.

Q28: Which of the following is NOT a private sector company in India?
Dabur
Tata Iron and Steel Company
Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
Bajaj Auto Limited

Q29:
What was the venue of the 57th ASEAN Foreign Ministers’ Meeting?
Jakarta, Indonesia
Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia
Vientiane, Lao People's Democratic Republic
Naypyidaw, Myanmar

Q30: The Great Stupa at Sanchi is an important site in which religion?
Buddhism
Hinduism
Jainism
Islam

Q31: In the case of a thin lens, how are the centres of curvature typically positioned relative to the optical centre?
They are closer to the edge than to the optical centre.
They are located on the lens surface itself.
They coincide with the optical centre.
They are equidistant from the optical centre.

Q32: Which of the following is true regarding the pH of a neutral solution at 25°C?
The pH is less than 7.
The pH is greater than 7.
The pH is not equal to 7.
The pH is equal to 7.

Q33: When light exits a prism, what is the result of its interaction with the prism surfaces?
Light is refracted.
Light passes through without any change.
Light is only reflected.
Light is only absorbed.

Q34: Which of the following is called a motile germ cell?
Embryo
Zygote
Female gamete
Male gamete

Q35: When an atom of sodium reacts with an atom of chlorine to form sodium chloride, each sodium atom:
gains one proton
loses one proton
loses one electron
gains one electron

Q36: The current through a resistor is:
inversely proportional to the resistance
proportional to the square of the resistance
proportional to the square root of the resistance
directly proportional to the resistance

Q37: The Moplah Rebellion of 1921 took place in which of the following regions?
Assam
Kerala
Punjab
Bengal

Q38: Space Kidz India has launched the ShakthiSAT mission to train ______ girls aged 14-18 from 108 countries in space technology, aiming for a satellite launch under ISRO’s Chandrayaan-4 mission in 2026.
10,000
5000
12,000
7500

Q39: What is the correct sequence of following mountain ranges of India from north to south?
1. Vindhya Range 2. Aravalli Range 3. Ajanta Range 4. Satpura Range
2, 1, 3, 4
1, 2, 4, 3
2, 1, 4, 3
1, 2, 3, 4

Q40: Which of the following is true regarding the bud development process in Hydra?
Formation of spore
Cell divisions at one site
Splitting of nucleus
Splitting of cytoplasm

Q41: In which case will a lens produce a magnification of exactly 1?
When the object is placed at twice the focal length
When the object is placed at the focal point
When the object is placed between centre of curvature and focal point
When the object is at infinity

Q42: Which of the following reactions leads to the production of bleaching powder?
CaCO₃ + HCl → CaCl₂ + CO₂ + H₂O
CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂
Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O
Ca(OH)₂ + Cl₂ → CaOCl₂ + H₂O

Q43: Which of the following is related to Article 84 of the Constitution?
Disqualification for membership
Qualification for membership of Parliament
Annual Financial Statement
Ordinance making Power of President

Q44: What is the final product of sexual reproduction in plants?
Fruits
Leaves
Seeds
Flowers

Q45: Where was the Swachh Vayu Diwas celebrated in India to combat air pollution in 2024?
Jaipur
Chandigarh
Bhopal
Indore

Report Card

Total Questions Attempted: 0

Correct Answers: 0

Wrong Answers: 0

Keep Practicing!


Why These Questions Matter

Studying real exam questions from recent shifts offers three advantages:

1. Pattern Recognition: Identify recurring topics like current affairs, Indian polity, or science.

2. Difficulty Benchmark: Understand if questions are fact-based, conceptual, or application-oriented.

3. Revision Efficiency: Prioritize high-weightage areas (e.g., government schemes, sports awards) for targeted preparation.

Pro Tip for Aspirants

Pair these questions with daily current affairs updates (January–December 2024) and static GK notes on history, geography, and the Indian Constitution. This combo will strengthen your speed and accuracy!

How to Use These Questions Effectively

  • Daily Practice: Solve 10-15 questions daily to retain facts.

  • Mock Tests: Mix these questions with other shifts’ GK sets for a broader practice range.

  • Analyze Mistakes: Revisit incorrect answers and clarify concepts immediately.

Final Thoughts

The RRB JE CBT-1 Exam demands consistent practice and strategic preparation. By working through these 50 GK questions, you’ll build confidence and adaptability for the actual test. Bookmark this post for quick revision, and pair it with our topic-wise guides to cover all bases!

Next Steps

After mastering this shift’s questions, explore our posts for 17th December, 2024 Shift 1, 2, 3, and 18th December Shift 1, 2, 3 and others Shifts of 2024 RRB JE CBT-1 Shifts to gain a complete understanding of the exam. Consistent practice with real questions is your best tool for success!