If you’re preparing for the RPF SI CBT 1 Exam 2025, practicing previous shifts’ questions can be a game-changer. This post shares the 50 General Knowledge (GK) questions from the total 120 questions asked in Shift 1 on 2nd December 2024 in RRB RPF SI CBT-I to help you gauge the exam’s scope, difficulty, and trending topics. This targeted resource is your key to unlocking a competitive edge, sharpening your readiness and confidence for the actual test.
Exam Overview (2024)
The RRB RPF SI CBT-1 exam evaluates candidates across 3 key subjects:
| Subjects | No. of Questions | Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Basic Arithmetic | 35 | 35 |
| General Awareness | 50 | 50 |
| General Intelligence & Reasoning | 35 | 35 |
| Total | 120 | 120 |
RRB RPF SI CBT-1 Paper: 02 December, 2024 Shift 1
- Duration: 90 minutes.
Marks for Correct Answers: +1
Marks for Un-attempted Questions: 0
Negative Marking: 1/3 marks deducted for wrong answers.
- Shift:1 (9:00 AM - 10:30 AM)
Practice
Show All Answers
Q1: Who among the following was the founder of Indian Space Research
Organisation (ISRO)?
Vikram Sarabhai
Sabah Dhawan
Dr Homi J Bhubha
Dr APJ Abdul Kalam
Q2: Which of the following programmes aims to improve the food and
nutritional status of people experiencing poverty?
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Kendras
Craftamen Training Scheme
Public Distribution System
Skill Loan Scheme
Q3: Which of the following is the main measure used to evaluate a nation's
economic health?
National Income
Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFI)
Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
Gross National Product (GNP)
Q4: Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution is related to
Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
Article 135
Article 140
Article 148
Article 130
Q5: Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Salmonella infection?
Diarrhoea
Fever
Vomiting
Abdominal cramps
Q6: An ant bite is acidic in nature. Which acid is present in ant bites?
Oxalic acid
Formic acid
Acetic acid
Lactic acid
Q7: Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution states that
all minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right
to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice?
Article 28
Article 30
Article 29
Article 31
Q8: What is the correct sequence of the following Biosphere Reserves of
India from east to west?
- Sunderban
- Pachmarhi
- Achanskmar-Amarkantak
- Similipal
1,3,4,2
1,4,3,2
4,2,3,1
2,3,4,1
Q9: Senior IAS officer Deepak Kumar was appointed by the Election Commission
as the new Home Secretary of which of the following states of India in March
2024?
West Bengal
Odisha
Karnataka
Uttar Pradesh
Q10: According to the Census 2011, which of the following union territories
of India has the best population density?
Lakshadweep
Puducherry
Chandigarh
Andaman and Nicobar islands
Q11: _________ is a kind of quantitative and qualitative process of change
which cannot be measured.
Growth
Evolution
Development
Progress
Q12: Who among the following wrote the book, 'The White Tiger'?
Arundhati Roy
Rajiv Malhotra
Aravind Adiga
Chitra Divakaruni
Q13: Which of the following NABARD subsidiaries sets an objective to provide
credit facilities to individuals and other legal entities?
NABFINS
NABCONS
NABVENTURE
NABSAMRUDDHI
Q14: Who among the following has assumed the charge of Chief of Army
Training Command, Shimla in 2022?
Lt Gen J S Nain
Lt Gen Raj Bhakla
Lt Gen C P Mohanty
Lt Gen SS Mahal
Q15: Arrange the following rulers of the Slave dynasty in the chronological
order.
Ruknuddin Firozshah < Bahramshah < Alauddin Masood Shah < Naseeruddin
Mahmood
Bahramshah < Ruknuddin Firozshah < Naseeruddin Mahmood < Alauddin Masood
Shah
Naseeruddin Mahmood < Bahramshah < Ruknuddin Firozshah < Alauddin Masood
Shah
Bahramshah < Alauddin Masood Shah < Naseeruddin Mahmood < Ruknuddin
Firozshah
Q16: Which of the following was the correct ascending order of
administration units of the Rashtrakuta dynasty?
Gana > Bhuki > Dasha
Bhukli > Rashtra > Vishaya
Vishaya > Bhukli > Rashtra
Bhukli > Vishaya > Rashtra
Q17: The idea of Justice (Social, Economic and Political) in the Preamble of
Indian Constitution has been taken from the Constitution of _________ .
France
Russia
Japan
America
Q18: According to the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD), which season
can be observed from October to December?
Winter
Pre-monsoon
Monsoon
Post-monsoon
Q19: Which of the following statements is/are true about Iltutmish?
- He was married to the daughter of Qutb-ud-din Aibak.
- He was the Governor of Lahore.
- He nominated his daughter as his successor.
Only 1 and 3
Only 1 and 2
All 1, 2 and 3
Only 2 and 3
Q20: Who among the following was the leader of the Wahabi movement in India?
Jamal Ahmad Khan
Shah Waliullah
Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
Syed Ahmed Barelvi
Q21: Which of the following articles deals with language to be used in the
Parliament?
Article 119
Article 118
Article 121
Article 120
Q22: The provision of "impeachment of President" in the Indian Constitution
is borrowed from the Constitution of __________ .
United States of America
Canada
Britain
France
Q23: Who among the following is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
President of India
Senior Member of Rajya Sabha
Vice-President of India
Leader of Opposition
Q24: In February 2024, the Cabinet approved the amendment in the Foreign
Direct Investment (FDI) policy on Space Sector. According to it, in which of
the following subsectors $100 \%$ FDI through automatic route has been
allowed?
Manufacturing components and subsystems for satellites
Satellite manufacturing
Satellite products
Launch vehicle and systems / sub-systems
Q25: Which of the following states is NOT connected to the Golden
Quadrilateral highway network?
Andhra Pradesh
Kerala
West Bengal
Tamil Nadu
Q26: According to the Census of India 2011, which of the following groups of
states recorded a population of more than 30 crore?
Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra
Bihar and Rajasthan
Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
Maharashtra and West Bengal
Q27: In January 2024, Sarbananda Sonowal launched 'Harit Nauka' guidelines
and 'River Cruise Tourism Roadmap, 2047' at the Inland Waterways Development
Council (IWDC) in _______ .
Kolkata
Thiruvananthapuram
Visakhapatnam
Bhubaneshwar
Q28: In which of the following types of forests are the spotted deer found?
Deciduous Forests
Montane Forests
Thorn Forests
Mangrove Forests
Q29: In September 2024, the World Health Organization (WHO) officially
recognised which of the following as the first country in the world to
eliminate leprosy?
Nepal
Syria
Jordan
Sudan
Q30: Which of the following is a feature of the Fiscal Responsibility and
Budget Management Act, 2003 (FRBMA)?
The reduction in fiscal deficit by 0.4 per cent of GDP each year
The reduction in fiscal deficit by 0.2 per cent of GDP each year
The reduction in fiscal deficit by 0.5 per cent of GDP each year
The reduction in fiscal deficit by 0.3 per cent of GDP each year
Q31: Who among the following is known for his contribution to the foundation
of the Jaipur-Atrauli gharana, particularly in the realm of tabla playing?
Ustad Kadarpiya Khan
Pandit Anindo Chatterjee
Ustad Zakir Hussain
Pandit Kishan Maharaj
Q32: The laws of inheritance form the foundation of classical genetics. Who
among the following first described the laws of inheritance?
Gregor Mendel
Charles Darwin
Dmitri Mendeleev
Alfred Russel Wallace
Q33: Manu Bhaker and Sarabjot Singh, the first Indian shooting pair to win
an Olympic medal in shooting at Paris 2024, defeated players of which
country to win the bronze medal?
Singapore
South Korea
Malaysia
Japan
Q34: 'Ichthyophis beddomei', a worm-like amphibian that can swim, belongs to
which genus?
Long hind limbs amphibia
Reduced forelimbs amphibia
Limbless amphibia
Short limbs amphibia
Q35: Images those are formed on a screen is termed as:
real
virtual
imaginary
real in some cases
Q36: Which of the following is the most appropriate definition of Newton's
second law?
An object at rest remains at rest, and an object in motion remains in motion
at constant speed and in a straight line unless acted on by an unbalanced
force.
The acceleration of an object depends on the mass of the object and the
amount of force applied.
Whenever one object exerts a force on a second object, the second object
exerts an equal and opposite force on the first.
The force needed to extend or compress a spring by some distance is
proportional to the distance.
Q37: Which of the following Indian musicologists is recognised for his role
in organising and codifying Hindustani classical music, thereby laying the
groundwork for modern education of India's musical heritage?
Baba Allauddin Khan
Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar
Ustad Abdul Karim Khan
Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande
Q38: Which of the following statements is true about the Animal Birth
Control Rules, 2023, notified by the Central Government in April 2023?
State governments can choose any government veterinary hospital to implement
the Animal Birth Control programme.
Local bodies are allowed to conduct the Animal Birth Control Programme but
only through the Animal Welfare Board of India recognised organisations.
Only the state governments are allowed to carry Animal Birth Control.
State governments are allowed to formulate guidelines on how to deal with
human and stray dog conflicts.
Q39: Which of the following schemes aims to create self-employment
opportunities in rural areas?
Prime Minister's Rozgar Yojana
Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
Swarna Jayanti Shahri Rozgar Yojana
Rural Employment Generation Programme
Q40: Who has become the first woman sniper of the Border Security Force
(BSF) in 2024?
Poonam Yadav
Anjali Singh
Suman Kumari
Sunita Sharma
Q41: Which of the following data sources is used for estimating extreme
poverty in India?
Household Consumer Expenditure Surveys
National Census data
Agricultural production data
National Income data
Q42: Asif Ali Zardari, who took oath as Pakistan's $14^{\text {th }}$
President in March 2024, replaced who among the following?
Shehbaz Sharif
Shahid Khaqan Abbasi
Arif Alvi
Mamnoon Hussain
Q43: Who among the following Muslim leaders first propounded the theory of
Two nations?
Liaquat Ali
Mohammad Iqbal
Muhammad Ali Jinnah
Rahmat Ali Chaudhary
Q44: Bhirrana, a Neolithic site, is situated in _________ state.
Rajasthan
Madhya Pradesh
Gujarat
Haryana
Q45: Who among the following was the first-ever Supreme Court Justice
against whom a motion for removal was initiated?
Hon'ble Mr. Justice Ramaswamy
Hon'ble Mr. Justice M.M. Punchhi
Hon'ble Mr. Justice Jitendra Vir Gupta
Hon'ble Justice Shanti Sarup Dewan
Q46: The Street Vendor's AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi) Scheme for
micro-credit completed how many years in June 2023?
2 years
3 years
1 year
4 years
Q47: In which month is the Hornbill festival celebrated in India?
July
May
December
March
Q48: Which of the following species of catfish was first discovered in the
state of Arunachal Pradesh in March 2023?
Exostoma sentiyonoae
Exostoma dhritiae
Glyptothorax punyabratai
Amblyceps laliceps
Q49: Indian chess player Raunak Sadhwani, who finished joint second in the
Masters group of the 30th Abu Dhabi International Chess Festival that
concluded in August 2024, belongs to which city?
Nagpur
Nashik
Mumbai
Pune
Q50: If you were to advise a state in India to start sesame cultivation as a
rabi crop, the state will be from which of the following regions of India?
Eastern India
Southern India
Northern India
Western India
Report Card
Total Questions Attempted: 0
Correct Answers: 0
Wrong Answers: 0
Keep Practicing!
Why These Questions Matter
Studying real exam questions from recent shifts offers three advantages:
1. Pattern Recognition: Identify recurring topics like current affairs, Indian polity, or science.
2. Difficulty Benchmark: Understand if questions are fact-based, conceptual, or application-oriented.
3. Revision Efficiency: Prioritize high-weightage areas (e.g., government schemes, sports awards) for targeted preparation.
Pro Tip for Aspirants
Pair these questions with daily current affairs updates (January–December 2024) and static GK notes on history, geography, and the Indian Constitution. This combo will strengthen your speed and accuracy!
How to Use These Questions Effectively
-
Daily Practice: Solve 10-15 questions daily to retain facts.
-
Mock Tests: Mix these questions with other shifts’ GK sets for a broader practice range.
-
Analyze Mistakes: Revisit incorrect answers and clarify concepts immediately.
Final Thoughts
The RPF SI CBT 1 Exam demands consistent practice and strategic preparation. By working through these 50 GK questions, you’ll build confidence and adaptability for the actual test. Bookmark this post for quick revision, and pair it with our topic-wise guides to cover all bases!
Next Steps
After mastering this shift’s questions, explore our posts for
2nd December, 2024 Shift 2, 3, and 3rd December Shift 1, 2, 3 and others
Shifts of 2024 RRB RRB SI CBT-1 Shifts
to gain a complete understanding of the exam. Consistent practice with real
questions is your best tool for success!