Preparing for competitive exams like the RRB ALP 2025 demands a strategic approach, and there’s no better way to sharpen your skills than by practicing real past exam questions. To supercharge your preparation, we’ve curated 30 high-value General Knowledge (GK) questions from the total 75 questions asked in Shift 2 on 26 November 2024 in RRB ALP CBT-I. This exclusive resource is designed to give you an unbeatable edge in your exam readiness.
Exam Overview (2024)
The RRB ALP CBT-1 exam evaluates candidates across 4 key subjects:
| Subjects | No. of Questions | Marks | Duration |
|---|---|---|---|
| Mathematics | 20 | 20 | 60 minutes |
| General Intelligence & Reasoning | 25 | 25 | |
| General Science | 20 | 20 | |
| General Awareness and Current Affairs | 10 | 10 | |
| Total | 75 | 75 |
RRB ALP CBT-I Paper: 26 November, 2024 Shift 2
- Duration: 60 minutes.
- Negative Marking: 1/3 marks deducted for wrong answers.
- Shift:1 (12:30 PM - 1:30 PM)
Practice
Show All Answers
Q1: The 2024 philately scholarship scheme was launched by the Department of
Posts under the ______.
Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojan
Digital India Program
Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
Pradhan Maniti Kaushal Vikas Yojana
Q2:
IIT Bombay and __________ have partnered to develop India's first
Quantum Diamond Microchip Imager.
Mahindra and Mahindra
TCS
Google
L&T
Q3: Which sexually transmitted diseases are caused by viruses?
Syphilis and AIDS
Warts and AIDS
Gonorrhoea and Syphilis
Warts and Gonorrhoea
Q4: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding metals?
Metals have to be drawn into thin wires.
Metals are good conductors of heat.
Metals, in their pure state, have a shining surface.
Lead and mercury are comparatively good conductors of heat.
Q5: Select the INCORRECT pair regarding Asexual reproduction
Yeast – spore formation
Plasmodium – multiple fission
Leishmania – binary fission
Hydra – multiple fission
Q6: In which of the following are CFCs NOT used?
Fire extinguishers
Grinders
Refrigerators
Aerosol sprays
Q7: The particles size of a solution is:
smaller than 1 nm in diameter
smaller than 100 nm in diameter
smaller than 52 nm in diameter
smaller than 28 nm in diameter
Q8: In October 2023, Prime Minister Narendra Modi formally announced India's
interest in bidding for the ______ Olympics at the 141st IOC Session.
2040
2028
2036
2032
Q9: Which of the following statements refer/s to the law of conservation of
energy?
Statements:
I) Energy can be converted from one form to another form of energy.
II) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed.
Both Statements I and II
Neither Statement I nor II
Only Statement II
Only Statement I
Q10: Select the correct pair from the following options.
Object's resistance to change its state of motion—Inertia
Object's resistance to change its state of motion—Gravitation
Object's resistance to change its state of motion—Momentum
Object's resistance to change its state of motion—Acceleration
Q11: Which of the following statements is/are correct? Statements:
I) A current carrying conductor acts like a magnet.
II) Moving electrons perpendicular to the magnetic field do not experience
any force.
Statement II only
Both Statements I and II
Statement I only
Neither Statement I nor II
Q12: The Sanganeshwara Temple had been submerged in the backwaters of the
Srisailam project due to heavy rainfall in the monsoon of 2024. This temple
lies on the banks of which river?
Ganga
Krishna
Narmada
Yamuna
Q13: In 2023, ‘Garba’ was declared as an intangible cultural heritage by
UNESCO. Which of the following states is Garba from?
West Bengal
Kerala
Assam
Gujarat
Q14: In 2024, which company entered into a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
with iCreate to promote AI startups in India?
Infosys
Google
Microsoft
Meta
Q15: Why does carbon make a stable compound?
Due to higher electronegativity carbon forms strong bonds.
Due to big size carbon forms strong bonds.
Due to small size carbon forms strong bonds.
Due to higher enthalpy carbon forms strong bonds.
Q16: Which of the following organisations is responsible for the development
of the Long-Range Glide Bomb (LRGB), GAURAV, tested in August 2024?
Indian Navy
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
Q17: Magnification produced by a spherical mirror is equal to ______.
Height of the image × height of the object
Object distance × image distance
\(\frac{\text{Object distance}}{\text{Image distance}}\)
\(\frac{\text{Height of the image}}{\text{Height of the object}}\)
Q18: Who coined the term ‘protoplasm’ for the fluid substance of the cell?
Robert Brown
Robert Hooke
Virchow
Purkinje
Q19: Which department's Disaster Management Division organised the
conference on 'Experience Sharing and Capacity Building in Disaster
Management' in August 2024?
National Disaster Response Force (NDRF)
Department of Telecommunications (DoT)
Ministry of Communications
National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM)
Q20: The book authored by Vijay Lokpally on Virat Kohli in the year 2023 is
______.
The Straight Drive: The Virat Kohli Story (Revised and Updated World Cup
Edition)
The Cover Shot: The Virat Kohli Story (Revised and Updated World Cup
Edition)
The Cover Drive: The Virat Kohli Story (Revised and Updated World Cup
Edition)
Driven: The Virat Kohli Story (Revised and Updated World Cup Edition)
Q21: What is the effect of heating on the rate of diffusion?
It increases with increase of temperature
There is no effect of temperature on the rate of diffusion.
It decreases with increase of temperature
It first increases and then, decreases after some time.
Q22: Which of the following will be formed when dilute hydrochloric acid is
added to a beaker having copper oxide?
A colourless solution is formed due to the formation of copper (II)
chloride.
A solution with blue-green colour is formed due to the formation of copper
(II) chloride.
A solution with green colour is formed due to the formation of copper (II)
chloride.
A solution with blue-green colour is formed due to the formation of copper
(III) chloride.
Q23: India's rank in the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) improved from
______ in 2022 to ______ in 2023.
93; 85
85; 93
40; 39
85; 40
Q24: Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about Rutherford's model
of an atom?
Electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular paths.
The size of the nucleus is very small as compared to that of the atom.
Electrons revolve around the nucleus in elliptical paths.
There is a positively charged centre in an atom, which is called the
nucleus.
Q25: Which organelle is found ONLY in plant cells?
Nucleus
Lysosome
Chloroplast
Mitochondria
Q26: Select the correct balanced equation option for the reaction Fe +
H\(_2\)O → Fe\(_3\)O\(_4\) + H\(_2\).
4Fe + 4H\(_2\)O → Fe\(_3\)O\(_4\) + 4H\(_2\)
3Fe + 4H\(_2\)O → Fe\(_3\)O\(_4\) + 4H\(_2\)
3Fe + 4H\(_2\)O → Fe\(_3\)O\(_4\) + 2H\(_2\)
2Fe + 4H\(_2\)O → Fe\(_3\)O\(_4\) + 4H\(_2\)
Q27: Which of the following statements is/are correct? Statements: I) The
mass of an object is the same as its weight. II) The mass of an object is
not the same as its weight. III) Mass is scalar quantity, whereas weight is
vector quantity.
Statement III
Statements I and III
Statements I and II
Statements II and III
Q28: In our body, brain and spinal cord together constitute the:
central nervous system
autonomic nervous system
peripheral nervous system
endocrine system
Q29: The relation between focal length 'f', object distance 'u' and image
distance 'v' in the case of reflection of light by a spherical mirror is
given by ______.
\( \frac{1}{f} = (1/\text{u}) - (1/\text{v}) \)
\( \frac{1}{f} = (1/\text{v}) - (1/\text{u}) \)
\( \frac{1}{f} = (\text{uv})/(\text{u}+\text{v}) \)
\( \frac{1}{f} = (1/\text{u}) + (1/\text{v}) \)
Q30: The work done in moving 10 coulomb charges across the potential
difference of 5 volts is ______.
50 joules
2 joules
20 joules
5 joules
Report Card
Total Questions Attempted: 0
Correct Answers: 0
Wrong Answers: 0
Keep Practicing!
How to Use This Post
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Practice Mode: Attempt questions one by one to test your knowledge.
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Instant Answers: Toggle “Show All Answers” to reveal solutions instantly.
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Focus Weak Areas: Review incorrect answers to strengthen your preparation.
Why Practice Real Exam Questions?
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Exact Difficulty Level & Pattern: Get a firsthand feel of the RRB ALP CBT-I’s question structure, complexity, and time constraints.
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Pinpoint Weak Areas: Use the included instant answer keys to identify gaps in your GK knowledge and focus your efforts efficiently.
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Build Exam Confidence: Familiarity with real questions reduces anxiety and improves speed and accuracy on the big day.
Preparation Tips
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Time Yourself: Mimic the exam’s time constraints.
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Strengthen Basics: Focus on high-weightage areas like Engineering and Math.
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Stay Updated: For General Awareness, review 2023–2024 news, tech trends, and railway updates.
Next Steps
After mastering this shift’s questions, explore our posts for
26 November, 2024 Shift 1, 3, and 27 November Shift 1,2,3 and others 2024
RRB ALP CBT-1 Shifts
to gain a complete understanding of the exam. Consistent practice with real
questions is your best tool for success!