Mastering Parajumbles: Tips, Tricks, and Examples for Competitive Exams

Preparing for Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) exams like RRB ALP, RRB Technician, RRB NTPC, and others requires a strategic approach, especially when it comes to the Indian Polity section.

Polity not only forms a significant part of the RRB syllabus but is also a common area where candidates can score well with consistent practice. To help you ace this section, we have compiled the top 100 most important Indian Polity questions that frequently appear in various RRB exams. These questions cover essential topics and provide a solid foundation for your preparation.

Most Asked Polity Topics for RRB Exams

To prepare well, focus on the most important topics in Indian Polity that are often asked in RRB exams. Here's a list of key areas and subtopics to help you.

Polity Topic	Subtopics
Constitution of India	Preamble, Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, Fundamental Duties
Parliament and State Legislatures	Structure, Functions, Powers, Legislative Process
Executive Branch	President, Prime Minister, Council of Ministers, Governor
Judiciary	Supreme Court, High Courts, Judicial Review, Powers of Courts
Federalism	Centre-State Relations, Distribution of Powers, Constitutional Amendments
Local Government	Panchayati Raj, Municipalities, 73rd and 74th Amendments
Election Commission	Roles, Powers, Responsibilities, Independent Election Commission
Fundamental Rights	Types, Enforcement, Limitations
Directive Principles	Key Principles, Influence on Legislation
Constitutional Amendments	Major Amendments, Procedures, Impact
Emergency Provisions	Types of Emergencies, Constitutional Provisions
Public Services and Governance	Civil Services, Public Administration, Government Policies
Human Rights	National Human Rights Commission, Rights Protection Mechanisms
Miscellaneous Topics	Language Policy, Financial Institutions, Important Articles and Schedules

Note: Prepare effectively for RRB exams with this MCQs set of most repeated GK questions from previous RRB exams.

• Top 100 History GK Questions
• Top 100 Geography GK Questions
• Top 100 Indian Polity MCQs
• Top 100 Art & Culture GK Questions
• Top 100 Physics GK Questions
• Top 100 Biology GK Questions
• Top 100 Chemistry GK Questions
• 50 Essential Computer GK Questions

Top 100 Most Important Poity GK Questions for Railway Exams

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Q1: As per Article 80 of the Constitution of India, ______ is the maximum strength of Rajya Sabha in India.

A. 260

B. 200

C. 250

D. 245

Article 80 of the Indian Constitution specifies that the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) can have a maximum of 250 members. This includes up to 238 members elected by the legislatures of the states and union territories using a single transferable vote system, and 12 members nominated by the President for their expertise in fields like literature, science, art, and social service.

Q2: As per Article 344 (1) and 351 of the Constitution of India, the eighth schedule includes the recognition of ______ languages.

A. 25

B. 22

C. 18

D. 20

The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution originally listed 14 languages, but it has been amended to include a total of 22 recognized languages. These languages are given official status and are used for various administrative purposes.

Q3: The “Directive Principles of State Policy” in the Indian Constitution are taken from which Constitution?

A. Constitution of Ireland

B. Constitution of the United States

C. Constitution of the United Kingdom

D. Constitution of Australia

The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the Constitution of Ireland. These principles aim to establish a just society by guiding the government in policy-making, though they are non-justiciable, meaning they are not enforceable by any court.

Q4: Under the provisions of which Article of the Indian Constitution is the President empowered to constitute a Finance Commission at the expiration of every fifth year or at such earlier time as the President considers necessary?

A. Article 300

B. Article 280

C. Article 250

D. Article 270

Article 280 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to appoint a Finance Commission every five years. The Finance Commission recommends the distribution of financial resources between the central government and the states, ensuring fiscal federalism.

Q5: Article 51A containing fundamental Duties was inserted by which constitutional amendment?

A. 42nd Amendment

B. 44th Amendment

C. 73rd Amendment

D. 86th Amendment

The Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Article 51A outlines the moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and uphold the unity of India.

Q6: Fundamental Duties of Indian Constitution were taken from ______.

A. United Kingdom

B. United States

C. France

D. Russia (USSR)

The Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution were inspired by the Soviet Union’s Constitution. They outline the moral obligations of citizens to help promote a spirit of patriotism and uphold the unity of India.

Q7: The Constitution of India came into effect on ______.

A. 26th January 1950

B. 30th January 1950

C. 15th August 1947

D. 2nd October 1949

The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949 and came into effect on 26th January 1950, a date celebrated annually as Republic Day.

Q8: The ideals of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity enshrined in the Constitution of India are borrowed from the constitution of ______.

A. France

B. United States

C. United Kingdom

D. Ireland

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution reflects the ideals of Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity, which are borrowed from the French Revolution. These ideals emphasize individual freedoms, equal opportunities, and brotherhood among citizens.

Q9: The NITI Aayog was formed by replacing the Planning Commission of India on ______ 2015.

A. 1st January

B. 15th August

C. 26th January

D. 2nd October

NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was established on 1st January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission. It serves as a policy think tank for the Indian government, aiming to foster cooperative federalism and sustainable development.

Q10: When did the Constituent Assembly of India meet for the first time?

A. 30th January 1950

B. 26th January 1950

C. 15th August 1947

D. 9th December 1946

The Constituent Assembly of India convened for the first time on 9th December 1946. It was tasked with drafting the Constitution of India, which came into effect on 26th January 1950.

Q11: The characteristics of the “Fundamental Rights” are taken from ______.

A. Constitution of Australia

B. Constitution of Ireland

C. Constitution of the United States

D. Constitution of the United Kingdom

The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the Bill of Rights in the United States Constitution. They guarantee civil liberties and protect individuals against any arbitrary actions by the state.

Q12: Which Article of the Constitution of India says that ‘No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law’?

A. Article 32

B. Article 19

C. Article 21

D. Article 14

Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty. It ensures that no person can be deprived of these rights except according to the procedure established by law, emphasizing the importance of due process.

Q13: Which Amendment in the Indian Constitution substituted the words ‘sovereign democratic republic’ with the words ‘sovereign socialist secular democratic republic’ and ‘unity of the Nation’ with the words ‘unity and integrity of the Nation’?

A. 42nd Amendment

B. 86th Amendment

C. 44th Amendment

D. 73rd Amendment

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 introduced significant changes to the Constitution, including substituting ‘sovereign democratic republic’ with ‘sovereign socialist secular democratic republic’ and modifying ‘unity of the Nation’ to ‘unity and integrity of the Nation’. This amendment aimed to reflect the socio-economic aspirations of the country.

Q14: What is the total number of Fundamental Duties present in Part IVA (Article 51A) of the Indian Constitution?

A. 12

B. 10

C. 9

D. 11

Part IVA of the Indian Constitution, introduced by the 42nd Amendment, contains 11 Fundamental Duties. These duties encourage citizens to respect the Constitution, uphold the sovereignty, promote harmony, and protect the environment, among others.

Q15: How long is the tenure of the President of India?

A. 7 years

B. 6 years

C. 4 years

D. 5 years

The President of India serves a term of five years from the date of their election. However, the President can be re-elected and there is no term limit. The role is largely ceremonial, with real executive power vested in the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.

Q16: Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?

A. Prime Minister

B. President

C. Parliament

D. Chief Justice of India

The Chief Election Commissioner of India is appointed by the President of India. The Election Commission is responsible for administering elections to the Parliament, state legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President.

Q17: The real executive/head of the Union Council of Ministers of the Indian government is ______.

A. Prime Minister

B. Vice-President

C. Chief Justice

D. President

The Prime Minister is the real executive head of the Union Council of Ministers in India. While the President is the ceremonial head of state, the Prime Minister holds the actual executive powers and leads the government.

Q18: How many members are nominated by the President of India in the Lok Sabha from the Anglo-Indian community?

A. 1

B. 3

C. 2

D. 0

The President of India can nominate up to two members to the Lok Sabha from the Anglo-Indian community if he/she believes that the community is not adequately represented. However, this provision has been discontinued by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2020.

Q19: The term of office of a member of Rajya Sabha is ______.

A. 3 years

B. 4 years

C. 6 years

D. 5 years

Members of the Rajya Sabha serve a term of six years. Unlike the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution, with one-third of its members retiring every two years.

Q20: In all Panchayat institutions, not less than ______ of the total number of seats reserved, shall be reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes or, as the case may be, the Scheduled Tribes.

A. Half

B. One-fifth

C. One-third

D. One-fourth

The Constitution mandates that at least one-third of the reserved seats in Panchayat institutions must be reserved for women belonging to Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes, ensuring representation and participation of marginalized groups in local governance.

Q21: In which year was the Planning Commission set up with the Prime Minister as its Chairperson, and hence began the era of five-year plans?

A. 1956

B. 1947

C. 1950

D. 1961

The Planning Commission of India was established in 1950, with the Prime Minister as its chairperson. It was responsible for formulating five-year plans to direct the economic development of the country. In 2015, it was replaced by NITI Aayog.

Q22: Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the protection of minorities?

A. Article 25

B. Article 19

C. Article 29

D. Article 30

Article 29 of the Indian Constitution provides protection to the interests of minorities by allowing them to conserve their distinct language, script, or culture. It ensures that minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

Q23: The Union Budget also known as Annual Financial Statements (AFS) for a particular financial year is given in which Article of the Indian Constitution?

A. Article 115

B. Article 120

C. Article 110

D. Article 112

Article 112 of the Indian Constitution pertains to the Union Budget or Annual Financial Statements. It mandates the presentation of the budget by the Finance Minister, detailing the government's revenues and expenditures for the upcoming fiscal year.

Q24: Under which Article of the Constitution of India do we consider Hindi in Devanagari script as an official language of India?

A. Article 343

B. Article 348

C. Article 350

D. Article 345

Article 343 of the Indian Constitution designates Hindi in the Devanagari script as the official language of the Union. It also provides provisions for the use of English for official purposes for a transitional period and allows states to adopt their own official languages.

Q25: In which year Constitution of India, through the 86th amendment, introduced Article 21-A to provide free and compulsory education to all children in the age group of 6 to 14 years as a fundamental Right?

A. 1999

B. 2002

C. 2005

D. 2010

The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 introduced Article 21-A to the Indian Constitution, making free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 years a fundamental right. This amendment led to the implementation of the Right to Education Act in 2009.

Q26: Identify the amendment in the Constitution of India, which is related to Panchayati Raj institutions from the following?

A. 91st Amendment

B. 73rd Amendment

C. 86th Amendment

D. 74th Amendment

The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 introduced significant changes to the Constitution regarding Panchayati Raj institutions. It provided constitutional status to local self-government in rural areas, ensuring decentralization and greater participation of people in governance.

Q27: Originally, how many articles were included in the Constitution of India?

A. 395

B. 350

C. 450

D. 400

The original Constitution of India, adopted in 1950, contained 395 articles divided into 22 parts. Over time, through various amendments, the number of articles has increased significantly to accommodate new provisions and changes.

Q28: Which country has the longest written constitution in the world?

A. Japan

B. France

C. United States

D. India

India holds the record for having the longest written constitution in the world. Adopted in 1950, it originally had 395 articles, 22 parts, and 8 schedules, and has been amended over 100 times to address the evolving needs of the nation.

Q29: The idea of the Constitution of India’s Constituent Assembly was first presented by whom?

A. B.R. Ambedkar

B. Mahatma Gandhi

C. Jawaharlal Nehru

D. Manabendra Nath Roy

Manabendra Nath Roy was among the early proponents who advocated for the formation of a Constituent Assembly to draft India's Constitution. The Constituent Assembly eventually played a pivotal role in framing the Constitution, with key figures like Dr. B.R. Ambedkar leading the process.

Q30: The concept of ‘Rule of law’ is taken from which country’s constitution?

A. American Constitution

B. Australian Constitution

C. Canadian Constitution

D. British Constitution

The 'Rule of Law' principle in the Indian Constitution is derived from the British Constitution. It emphasizes that every citizen is subject to the law, including lawmakers and government officials, ensuring fairness and justice in governance.

Q31: Independence of Judiciary and Judicial review provided in the Constitution of India has been adopted from ______.

A. The French Constitution

B. The US Constitution

C. The British Constitution

D. The Canadian Constitution

The independence of the judiciary and the power of judicial review in India are inspired by the United States Constitution. These features ensure that the judiciary can operate without undue influence from the other branches of government, maintaining checks and balances.

Q32: Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee (1947), which had the task to prepare the draft of the Constitution?

A. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

C. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

D. Jawaharlal Nehru

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly of India. He is often referred to as the principal architect of the Indian Constitution due to his significant contributions in framing its structure and provisions.

Q33: The Supreme Court and High Courts have power to issue writs in the nature of habeas corpus, quo warranto, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition, etc., under______.

A. Article 12 and 19

B. Article 14 and 19

C. Article 21 and 22

D. Article 32 and 226 respectively

Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, while Article 226 grants High Courts the authority to issue writs for the same purpose within their jurisdictions. These writs include habeas corpus, quo warranto, mandamus, certiorari, and prohibition, ensuring judicial protection of citizens' rights.

Q34: The Fundamental Duties were added in the Indian Constitution by the recommendation of which of the following committees?

A. Swaran Singh Committee

B. Mandal Committee

C. Sarkaria Commission

D. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

The Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Indian Constitution based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. These duties aim to remind citizens that while they enjoy fundamental rights, they also have responsibilities towards the nation and society.

Q35: The minimum age required to contest the election for the President of India is ______.

A. 30 years

B. 35 years

C. 25 years

D. 40 years

To contest in the Presidential elections in India, a candidate must be at least 35 years old. Additionally, they must be a citizen of India and must possess other qualifications as specified in the Constitution.

Q36: The first general election of Lok Sabha was held in the year:

A. 1955

B. 1950

C. 1947

D. 1951-1952

The first general elections for the Lok Sabha, the lower house of Parliament, were conducted between 1951 and 1952. These elections marked the beginning of democratic governance in independent India, with the Indian National Congress securing a majority.

Q37: What is the total number of Lok Sabha members at present?

A. 550

B. 500

C. 543

D. 545

The Lok Sabha currently comprises 543 elected members representing various constituencies across India. Additionally, there may be two nominated members from the Anglo-Indian community, although this provision has been discontinued by the 104th Constitutional Amendment.

Q38: Who was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

A. K.M. Munshi

B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

C. G.V. Mavalankar

D. B.R. Ambedkar

G.V. Mavalankar was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha, serving from 1952 to 1956. He played a crucial role in establishing the procedures and decorum of the newly formed lower house of Parliament.

Q39: Who among the following can preside over a joint sitting of the two Houses of the Indian Parliament?

A. Prime Minister

B. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

C. Vice-President of India

D. President of India

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament in India. This usually occurs to resolve deadlocks on legislation. The Speaker ensures orderly conduct and adherence to procedural rules during the session.

Q40: Who is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States)?

A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

B. Prime Minister

C. Chief Justice of India

D. Vice-President of India

The Vice-President of India serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. In this role, the Vice-President presides over the sessions of the Rajya Sabha and ensures that debates and discussions are conducted smoothly and according to the rules.

Q41: What is the maximum number of days for which a Money Bill/Finance Bill can be stayed by the Rajya Sabha?

A. 7 Days

B. 30 Days

C. 14 Days

D. 21 Days

Under Article 109 of the Indian Constitution, the Rajya Sabha can suggest amendments to a Money Bill within 14 days of its receipt. However, the Lok Sabha can accept or reject these suggestions. The Rajya Sabha cannot delay the passage of a Money Bill beyond this period.

Q42: In 1993, the Government of India established an institution, the NHRC, to monitor the violations of human rights. What is the full form of NHRC?

A. National Health Research Council

B. National Housing Regulatory Committee

C. National Human Rights Commission

D. National Higher Education Council

The NHRC stands for National Human Rights Commission. Established in 1993, it is tasked with the protection and promotion of human rights in India. The commission investigates human rights violations, reviews laws, and advises the government on human rights issues.

Q43: On Centre-State relations, a commission had been set up by the government of India named Sarkaria Commission, in the year:

A. 1975

B. 1983

C. 1980

D. 1990

The Sarkaria Commission was established in 1983 to examine and recommend measures to improve the Centre-State relations in India. Chaired by Justice R.S. Sarkaria, the commission's recommendations aimed at fostering better cooperation and understanding between the central and state governments.

Q44: ‘Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment’ as a Fundamental Right in the Indian Constitution is given in which Article of the Constitution?

A. Article 21

B. Article 19

C. Article 16

D. Article 14

Article 16 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, or residence, ensuring fair and equal access to government jobs.

Q45: Which article of the Indian Constitution provides Right against Exploitation?

A. Article 24

B. Article 21

C. Article 23

D. Article 25

Article 23 of the Indian Constitution prohibits the exploitation of individuals, specifically outlawing human trafficking and forced labor. It ensures that no person is held in slavery or servitude and that forced labor is eradicated.

Q46: Which Amendment to the Constitution of India removed the ‘Right to property’ from the Fundamental Rights?

A. 44th Constitutional Amendment 1978

B. 52nd Amendment

C. 73rd Amendment

D. 42nd Amendment

The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 removed the ‘Right to Property’ from the list of Fundamental Rights, making it a legal right under Article 300A. This change aimed to address land reform and socio-economic issues without violating fundamental liberties.

Q47: Which part of the Constitution of India contains Fundamental Rights of the citizens of India or ‘Magna Carta of India’?

A. Part 5

B. Part 4

C. Part 2

D. Part 3

Part III of the Indian Constitution enshrines the Fundamental Rights of citizens, often referred to as the 'Magna Carta of India'. These rights include equality before the law, freedom of speech, and protection against exploitation, among others.

Q48: Indian Constitution was adopted and enacted by the Constituent Assembly on _____.

A. 15th August, 1947

B. 2nd October, 1949

C. 26th January, 1950

D. 26th November, 1949

The Constituent Assembly of India adopted and enacted the Constitution on 26th November 1949. However, it came into effect on 26th January 1950, marking the beginning of the Republic of India.

Q49: Who was the first & elected President of the Constituent Assembly of independent India?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru

B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

C. Dr. S.Radhakrishnan

D. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Constituent Assembly of India. He later became the first President of India, serving from 1950 to 1962. His leadership was instrumental in the drafting and adoption of the Constitution.

Q50: Who is considered as the architect of the Indian Constitution also known as the Father of Constitution?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru

B. Mahatma Gandhi

C. B.R. Ambedkar

D. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is widely regarded as the principal architect of the Indian Constitution and is often called the 'Father of the Indian Constitution'. He chaired the Drafting Committee and played a key role in shaping the Constitution's structure and provisions.

Q51: The inspiration for the adoption of Parliamentary form of government was drawn by framers of the Constitution of India from:

A. Canada

B. Australia

C. United States

D. Britain

The framers of the Indian Constitution adopted the Parliamentary form of government inspired by the British model. This system features a clear separation between the head of state (President) and the head of government (Prime Minister), with the executive responsible to the legislature.

Q52: The concept of Federation with strong Centre in the Indian Constitution has been taken from:

A. Germany

B. United States

C. Canada

D. Australia

The federal structure of the Indian Constitution, characterized by a strong central government, is inspired by the Canadian model. This ensures unity and integrity of the nation while allowing for regional autonomy.

Q53: Which of the following features of the Constitution of India is borrowed from the Constitution of the United Kingdom?

A. Judicial review

B. Directive Principles

C. Fundamental Rights

D. Single citizenship

The feature of single citizenship in India, where all citizens are citizens of India regardless of the state they reside in, is borrowed from the United Kingdom's constitutional framework. Unlike federal systems like the USA, there is no separate state citizenship in India.

Q54: The process of amending the Constitution and election of Rajya Sabha members has been taken from which Constitution?

A. South African Constitution

B. British Constitution

C. Australian Constitution

D. Canadian Constitution

The process of amending the Indian Constitution and the election mechanism for Rajya Sabha members have been influenced by the South African Constitution. This includes the requirement of a special majority for amendments and proportional representation for Rajya Sabha elections.

Q55: The first Municipal Corporation was set up during the British era in the former Presidency Town of ______ in 1688.

A. Madras

B. Delhi

C. Bombay

D. Calcutta

The first Municipal Corporation in India was established in Madras (now Chennai) in 1688 by the British. This marked the beginning of modern municipal governance in India, which later expanded to other major cities under British rule.

Q56: Who was the temporary president of the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly held on December 09, 1946?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru

B. Sachchidanand Sinha

C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

D. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Sachchidanand Sinha served as the temporary president during the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly on December 9, 1946. He played a crucial role in facilitating the initial sessions before Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent President of the Assembly.

Q57: Which of the following Parts and Articles of the Constitution of India is related to Fundamental Duties?

A. Part II (Article 32)

B. Part V (Article 21)

C. Part IVA (Article 51A)

D. Part III (Article 12)

Part IVA of the Indian Constitution, specifically Article 51A, outlines the Fundamental Duties of citizens. These duties were added by the 42nd Amendment to promote a sense of responsibility and civic consciousness among the populace.

Q58: Who administers the oath of office of the President of India?

A. Speaker of Lok Sabha

B. Vice-President

C. Prime Minister

D. Chief Justice of India

The Chief Justice of India administers the oath of office to the President of India during the inauguration ceremony. This solemn oath signifies the commencement of the President's duties and responsibilities as the head of state.

Q59: For Rajya Sabha membership, the President nominates ______ members on the basis of their excellence in literature, science, art and social service and the rest are elected.

A. 10

B. 12

C. 15

D. 8

The President of India nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha who have excelled in fields like literature, science, art, and social service. These nominations ensure that experts from diverse areas contribute to legislative discussions and policymaking.

Q60: The President can nominate two members of which community to the Lok Sabha?

A. Scheduled Tribes

B. Other Backward Classes

C. Anglo-Indian

D. Scheduled Castes

The President of India had the authority to nominate up to two members of the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha if he/she believed that the community was not adequately represented. However, this provision was abolished by the 104th Constitutional Amendment in 2020.

Q61: Who among the following is the supreme commander of the Indian armed forces?

A. Chief of Army Staff

B. President

C. Prime Minister

D. Defense Minister

The President of India is the supreme commander of the Indian armed forces. This role is largely ceremonial, with executive powers vested in the Prime Minister and the Ministry of Defense for day-to-day military operations and strategic decisions.

Q62: Who appoints the chief justice and other judges of the Supreme Court of India?

A. Parliament

B. Chief Justice of India

C. President

D. Prime Minister

The President of India appoints the Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the collegium of senior Supreme Court judges. This process ensures the independence and integrity of the judiciary.

Q63: The Vice-President of India is elected by the:

A. Members of both houses of Parliament

B. Members of Lok Sabha only

C. Members of Rajya Sabha only

D. Electoral College

The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both houses of Parliament—the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. This ensures that the Vice-President has the confidence of the entire Parliament.

Q64: Who is the head of Nuclear Command Authority, NITI Aayog, Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, Department of Atomic Energy, Department of Space and Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions?

A. Defense Minister

B. Prime Minister

C. President

D. Home Minister

The Prime Minister of India is the head of various key bodies and departments, including the Nuclear Command Authority, NITI Aayog, the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, the Department of Atomic Energy, the Department of Space, and the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions. This centralizes strategic decision-making under the Prime Minister's leadership.

Q65: What is the Maximum strength of the members of the Lok Sabha?

A. 552

B. 540

C. 545

D. 550

The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is 552 members, comprising up to 530 members representing the states, up to 20 members from Union Territories, and 2 nominated members from the Anglo-Indian community (though this nomination is now discontinued).

Q66: The speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by:

A. The Prime Minister

B. The President

C. All the members of Lok Sabha

D. Only elected members

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by all the members of the Lok Sabha from among themselves. The Speaker presides over the sessions, maintains order, and ensures that parliamentary procedures are followed.

Q67: The lower house of the Indian Parliament is called ______.

A. Gram Sabha

B. Vidhan Sabha

C. Rajya Sabha

D. Lok Sabha

The lower house of the Indian Parliament is called the Lok Sabha, or House of the People. It is composed of members directly elected by the people of India, and it plays a crucial role in the legislative process, including the passage of bills and budgets.

Q68: What is the minimum age for becoming a member of the Rajya Sabha?

A. 35 years

B. 40 years

C. 30 years

D. 25 years

The minimum age to be a member of the Rajya Sabha, the upper house of Parliament, is 30 years. This is higher than the minimum age for the Lok Sabha, which is 25 years, reflecting the Rajya Sabha's role as a house of elder statesmen and experienced individuals.

Q69: Who was the first chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

A. B.R. Ambedkar

B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

C. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

D. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, the first Vice-President of India, served as the first Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. His tenure set the precedent for the role's importance in facilitating legislative discussions and maintaining decorum in the upper house.

Q70: What is the minimum age limit to become the Governor of a state in India?

A. 25 years

B. 40 years

C. 35 years

D. 30 years

The minimum age to be appointed as a Governor of an Indian state is 35 years. Governors act as the nominal head of state in each state, performing ceremonial duties and ensuring that the state government functions according to the Constitution.

Q71: Who was the first woman Chief Minister of a state in India?

A. Indira Gandhi

B. Sarojini Naidu

C. Jayalalithaa

D. Sucheta Kripalani

Sucheta Kripalani was the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state, serving as the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh from 1963 to 1967. She was a prominent freedom fighter and politician, contributing significantly to India's independence movement and post-independence politics.

Q72: The tenure of the Village Panchayat is for how many years?

A. 3

B. 5

C. 4

D. 6

The tenure of a Village Panchayat, the basic unit of local self-government in rural India, is five years. After this period, elections are held to elect new members, ensuring regular participation and representation of the village populace in governance.

Q73: The three-tier system of Panchayati Raj was first recommended by the ______ in 1957.

A. Sarkaria Commission

B. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

C. Swaran Singh Committee

D. Ashok Mehta Committee

The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, established in 1957, recommended the adoption of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system in India. This system includes village, intermediate, and district levels, promoting decentralized governance and grassroots participation in rural development.

Q74: Which Indian state was the first to be carved out on the basis of language in the year 1956?

A. Gujarat

B. Maharashtra

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Kerala

Andhra Pradesh was the first state in India to be reorganized on a linguistic basis in 1956. This was a result of the Telugu-speaking population's demand for a separate state, leading to the creation of the Andhra State from the Telugu-speaking regions of Madras State.

Q75: The Federal Court of India was set up in the year______.

A. 1960

B. 1947

C. 1937

D. 1950

The Federal Court of India was established in 1937 under the Government of India Act 1935. It served as the highest court for resolving disputes between the provinces and the central government until it was replaced by the Supreme Court of India in 1950 after independence.

Q76: Who was the first female judge of the Supreme Court in India?

A. Ranjana Desai

B. M. Fathima Beevi

C. Indira Jaising

D. Fali S. Nariman

M. Fathima Beevi was the first female judge to be appointed to the Supreme Court of India in 1989. Her appointment marked a significant milestone in the representation of women in the highest judiciary of the country.

Q77: As of March 2022, how many High Courts are there in India?

A. 30

B. 22

C. 28

D. 25

As of March 2022, India has 25 High Courts. High Courts are the principal civil courts of original jurisdiction in each state and union territory, and they supervise lower courts within their jurisdictions.

Q78: When was the National Green Tribunal established by the Government of India?

A. 2005

B. 2008

C. 2010

D. 2012

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established in 2010 to handle environmental disputes and ensure the effective and expeditious disposal of cases related to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources.

Q79: Who is the highest Law Officer of the Government of India?

A. Advocate General of Delhi

B. Solicitor General for India

C. Attorney General for India

D. Chief Justice of India

The Attorney General for India is the highest law officer in the country. Appointed by the President, the Attorney General advises the government on legal matters, represents the state in the Supreme Court and other courts, and performs other legal duties as assigned.

Q80: The Lok Sabha and assembly elections of each state are per ______ year.

A. Six years

B. Three years

C. Four years

D. Five years

Both Lok Sabha (House of the People) and State Legislative Assembly elections in India are held every five years, unless the house is dissolved earlier. This regular cycle ensures democratic governance and accountability of elected representatives.

Q81: Indian Constitution adopts universal adult suffrage as the basis of the Lok Sabha elections. Every citizen who is not less than ______ has the right to vote.

A. 18 years

B. 16 years

C. 21 years

D. 25 years

The Indian Constitution grants the right to vote to every citizen who is 18 years of age or older, adhering to the principle of universal adult suffrage. This ensures broad participation in the democratic process, allowing the electorate to choose their representatives.

Q82: Which of the following is done by Panchayat and Corporation elections organized by whom?

A. Local Government Authorities

B. State Election Commission

C. Ministry of Home Affairs

D. Election Commission of India

Panchayat and Corporation elections in India are organized and conducted by the State Election Commissions. These independent bodies ensure free and fair elections at the local level, separate from the national Election Commission responsible for parliamentary and state assembly elections.

Q83: ______ of the Constitution of India provides that no discrimination can be made against a citizen on grounds only of race, religion, caste, or place of birth or any of them.

A. Article 14

B. Article 21

C. Article 15

D. Article 19

Article 15 of the Indian Constitution prohibits discrimination against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. It ensures equal treatment in public places and prohibits the state from imposing any special conditions on access to public places.

Q84: Article 17 of the Indian Constitution enforces the:

A. right to education

B. abolition of practice of untouchability

C. right to freedom of speech

D. right against exploitation

Article 17 abolishes the practice of untouchability and forbids its practice in any form. It aims to eliminate caste-based discrimination and promote social equality, ensuring that no individual is treated as untouchable in any sphere of public life.

Q85: As of August 2022, which Article of the Constitution of India says “No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment?

A. Article 23

B. Article 21

C. Article 24

D. Article 19

Article 24 of the Indian Constitution prohibits the employment of children below the age of fourteen years in factories, mines, or any other hazardous occupations. This provision aims to protect children from exploitation and ensure their right to education and a safe childhood.

Q86: The power of the President to promulgate ordinances during recess of the parliament is given in which article of the Indian Constitution?

A. Article 110

B. Article 123

C. Article 101

D. Article 124

Article 123 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances when either house of Parliament is not in session. These ordinances have the same force as laws passed by Parliament but must be approved within six weeks of reassembling the Parliament.

Q87: Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for an Independent Election Commission?

A. Article 324

B. Article 310

C. Article 356

D. Article 368

Article 324 establishes the Election Commission of India as an independent authority responsible for administering elections to the Parliament, state legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President. Its independence ensures free and fair elections.

Q88: Which Article of the Constitution of India has part XX that deals with the powers of the Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedures?

A. Article 356

B. Article 368

C. Article 370

D. Article 352

Article 368 of the Indian Constitution outlines the procedure for amending the Constitution. It details the process by which Parliament can make changes, including the requirements for different types of amendments, ensuring flexibility and rigidity as needed.

Q89: The Right to Education (6 to 14 years) in the Indian Constitution was added by introducing a new Article ______, in the Chapter on Fundamental Rights in 2002 by the 86th Constitutional Amendment.

A. 19A

B. 21A

C. 22A

D. 20A

The 86th Constitutional Amendment in 2002 introduced Article 21A, making the Right to Education a fundamental right for children aged 6 to 14 years. This amendment mandated free and compulsory education for all children within this age group.

Q90: Which Article of the Constitution of India lays down that the State shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government?

A. Article 40

B. Article 39

C. Article 38

D. Article 41

Article 40 of the Indian Constitution directs the State to organize village panchayats and provide them with the necessary powers and authority to function as units of self-government. This promotes decentralized governance and grassroots participation in rural development.

Q91: ______ of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security.

A. Article 44

B. Article 48

C. Article 51

D. Article 50

Article 51 of the Directive Principles of State Policy encourages the State to endeavor to promote international peace and security, maintain just and honorable relations between nations, and foster respect for international law and treaty obligations.

Q92: Ten Fundamental Duties have been added in Part-IV of the Constitution under ______ in the year 1976 through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.

A. Article 21

B. Article 51

C. Article 14

D. Article 51A

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment in 1976 added the Fundamental Duties to Part IV-A of the Constitution under Article 51A. These duties outline the moral obligations of citizens to promote a spirit of patriotism, uphold the Constitution, protect the environment, and contribute to the community's well-being.

Q93: Which Article of the Indian Constitution specifically mentions, “The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script”?

A. Article 344

B. Article 346

C. Article 345

D. Article 343 (1)

Article 343(1) of the Indian Constitution declares Hindi in the Devanagari script as the official language of the Union. It also provides provisions for the continued use of English for official purposes for a transition period and allows states to adopt their own official languages.

Q94: In which amendment of the Constitution of India was Delhi designated as National Capital Territory (NCT)?

A. 73rd Amendment Act

B. 86th Amendment Act

C. 69th Amendment Act

D. 74th Amendment Act

The 69th Amendment Act of 1991 designated Delhi as the National Capital Territory (NCT) of India. This amendment provided Delhi with a special status, granting it a unique administrative structure with a legislative assembly and a Lieutenant Governor.

Q95: By the 86th Amendment Act, which of the following rights has been included in the list of Fundamental Rights as part of the Right to Freedom by adding Article 21A in Constitution of India.

A. Right to healthcare

B. Right to housing

C. Right to information

D. Right to education

The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 introduced Article 21A, making the Right to Education a fundamental right for children aged 6 to 14 years. This ensures free and compulsory education, aiming to improve literacy and educational outcomes across the country.

Q96: Which schedule of the Indian constitution contains the list of states and union territories?

A. Fifth Schedule

B. Second Schedule

C. First Schedule

D. Seventh Schedule

The First Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists all the states and union territories of India. It provides details on the names of the states, their territories, and any changes to their boundaries or statuses.

Q97: Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution makes provision for the division of powers between Union and the States?

A. VII

B. IX

C. V

D. VIII

The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution outlines the division of powers between the Union and the States through three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List. This structure ensures a clear demarcation of legislative responsibilities.

Q98: How many times has ‘Financial Emergency’ been declared in India so far?

A. Twice

B. Three times

C. Once

D. Never

As of now, India has never declared a 'Financial Emergency'. The provisions for a Financial Emergency are outlined in Article 360 of the Constitution, allowing the President to declare such a state if the financial stability or credit of India is threatened.

Q99: Who is known as ‘Modern Manu’?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru

B. B.R. Ambedkar

C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

D. Mahatma Gandhi

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is often referred to as the 'Modern Manu' due to his pivotal role in drafting the Indian Constitution and his efforts to eradicate social injustices like caste discrimination. His contributions have had a lasting impact on India's legal and social framework.

Q100: When did Bangladesh separate from Pakistan?

A. 1971

B. 1947

C. 1965

D. 1980

Bangladesh gained independence from Pakistan in 1971 after a brutal liberation war. The conflict led to significant geopolitical changes in South Asia, resulting in the creation of Bangladesh as a separate sovereign nation.

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Why Indian Polity is Crucial for RRB Exams

Indian Polity is essential for RRB exams, particularly in the General Awareness section, which holds significant weight. This subject covers the Indian Constitution, government structure, and fundamental rights and duties.

In exams like RRB NTPC, Indian Polity questions are prominent, making it crucial for high scores. Practicing key topics and past questions can secure high marks in the 40-mark General Awareness section.

How to Prepare for Indian Polity in RRB Exams

To excel in RRB exams, focus on mastering Indian Polity. Here's a simplified guide to help you prepare effectively:

Preparation Tips

• Practice Regularly: Set aside time each day to practice polity questions.
• Understand Concepts: Focus on grasping underlying concepts rather than just memorizing.
• Review and Revise: Regularly review attempted questions and work on weak areas.
• Take Mock Tests: Simulate exam conditions with full-length mock tests.

Additional Tips

• Refer to standard books like "Indian Polity" by M. Laxmikanth.
• Stay updated on recent amendments and current affairs.
• Utilize online resources for practice tests and interactive learning.

Mastering Indian Polity is a crucial step towards success in RRB exams. By focusing on the most important and frequently asked questions, you can enhance your preparation and boost your confidence. Remember to practice consistently, understand the core concepts, and stay updated with the latest developments in Indian governance.