Top 100 Most Important Biology GK Questions for RRB Exams
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If you are preparing for RRB exams like RRB ALP, RRB Technician, or RRB NTPC, then
Biology is an important subject that can significantly impact your overall
performance and chances of success.
To improve your Bio preparation, we’ve compiled the Top 100 Most Repeated
Biology Questions frequently asked in various RRB exams. This comprehensive
guide not only presents essential questions but also offers insightful
analyses of key Biology topics and effective study strategies to enhance your
understanding and retention.
Most Asked Biology Topics for RRB Exams
Focusing on the right Biology topics can help your preparation and maximize
your study efficiency. Below is a table highlighting the
Most Asked Biology Topics in RRB exams, along with the number
of questions (out of the top 100 questions) typically associated with each
topic. This structured approach will help you prioritize your study sessions
and cover the most relevant areas effectively.
Biology Topic
Number of Questions
Key Areas Covered
Human Anatomy and Physiology
37
Human body systems, organs, blood pressure, excretory system, senses,
temperature regulation, hormones, reproduction
Top 100 Biology Questions for Railway Exam Preparation
PracticeShow All Answers
Q1: What is the normal systolic and diastolic (blood pressure) pressure in humans?
A. 120 mm of Hg / 80 mm of Hg
B. 160 mm of Hg / 100 mm of Hg
C. 100 mm of Hg / 60 mm of Hg
D. 140 mm of Hg / 90 mm of Hg
The normal blood pressure for a healthy adult is typically around 120 mm Hg systolic and 80 mm Hg diastolic. Blood pressure readings higher than this may indicate hypertension, while lower readings may suggest hypotension. Maintaining blood pressure within the normal range is crucial for proper body function.
Q2: Which organelle of the eukaryotic cells are also called suicidal bags?
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Mitochondria
C. Lysosomes
D. Peroxisomes
Lysosomes are known as "suicidal bags" because they contain digestive enzymes that can break down cellular waste and debris. If a lysosome ruptures, these enzymes can destroy the cell, hence the term "suicidal."
Q3: Which vitamin activates proteins and calcium essential for blood clotting?
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin B12
D. Vitamin C
Vitamin K is essential for the activation of proteins involved in blood clotting. It helps in the synthesis of prothrombin, a key factor in the clotting cascade. Deficiency in Vitamin K can lead to impaired blood clotting and excessive bleeding.
Q4: Rickets is caused due to the deficiency of :
A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin B6
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin K
Rickets is a bone disease in children caused by a deficiency of Vitamin D, which is necessary for the absorption of calcium and phosphate from the diet. Without sufficient Vitamin D, bones become soft and weak, leading to skeletal deformities.
Q5: ______ is a process of energy production with the help of respiratory oxygen.
A. Anaerobic respiration
B. Fermentation
C. Photosynthesis
D. Aerobic respiration
Aerobic respiration is the process by which cells produce energy (ATP) using oxygen. It involves the breakdown of glucose in the mitochondria, resulting in carbon dioxide and water as byproducts. This process is highly efficient in producing energy compared to anaerobic pathways.
Q6: Which process in the human digestive system is similar to the emulsification of soap on dirt?
A. Absorption in the small intestine
B. Mechanical churning in the stomach
C. Bile salts breaking large fat globules into smaller ones
D. Enzymatic digestion of proteins
Bile salts emulsify fats in the digestive system by breaking down large fat globules into smaller droplets, increasing the surface area for enzymes like lipase to effectively digest the fats. This is similar to how soap emulsifies dirt in water.
Q7: Growth hormone will be secreted by which of the following endocrine glands?
A. Thyroid
B. Adrenal
C. Pancreas
D. Pituitary
The pituitary gland, specifically the anterior lobe, secretes growth hormone (GH), which stimulates growth, cell reproduction, and regeneration in humans and other animals. GH plays a critical role during childhood and continues to have important functions in adult metabolism.
Q8: Which of the following contraceptive methods is useful for controlling both unwanted pregnancies and STDs?
A. Condom
B. IUD
C. Oral contraceptives
D. Sterilization
Condoms are the only contraceptive method that provides effective protection against both unwanted pregnancies and sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). They act as a barrier to prevent sperm from entering the uterus and reduce the transmission of pathogens.
Q9: Which components are necessary for photosynthesis?
A. Oxygen, water, sunlight and chlorophyll
B. Carbon dioxide, glucose, sunlight and chlorophyll
C. Carbon dioxide, water, sunlight and chlorophyll
D. Nitrogen, water, sunlight and chlorophyll
Photosynthesis requires carbon dioxide, water, sunlight, and chlorophyll. Chlorophyll captures light energy, which is used to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen. This process is fundamental for plant growth and provides energy for almost all living organisms.
Q10: The process of water being lost from the leaves of the plants from the pores (Stomata) is known as:
A. Evaporation
B. Respiration
C. Transpiration
D. Photosynthesis
Transpiration is the process by which water vapor is lost from the leaves of plants through small openings called stomata. This process helps in the uptake of water and nutrients from the soil and maintains the plant's temperature.
Q11: Which cell organelle acts as a power house of the cell?
A. Mitochondria
B. Ribosome
C. Nucleus
D. Chloroplast
Mitochondria are known as the powerhouses of the cell because they generate most of the cell's supply of adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which is used as a source of chemical energy. They are essential for energy production in both plant and animal cells.
Q12: Which molecule is known as the ‘Energy Currency’ of the cell?
A. NADH
B. DNA
C. ATP
D. Glucose
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is referred to as the 'Energy Currency' of the cell because it stores and transports chemical energy within cells. ATP is used in various cellular processes, including muscle contraction, nerve impulse propagation, and chemical synthesis.
Q13: Bone is an example of which of the following types of tissues?
A. Nervous tissue
B. Muscle tissue
C. Connective tissue
D. Epithelial tissue
Bone is a type of connective tissue that provides structural support, protection for internal organs, and facilitates movement by anchoring muscles. Connective tissues also include blood, adipose tissue, and cartilage.
Q14: Bile secreted by the liver helps in ______.
A. Absorption of proteins
B. Digestion
C. Storage of glycogen
D. Synthesis of vitamins
Bile aids in the digestion of fats by emulsifying large fat globules into smaller droplets, increasing the surface area for digestive enzymes to act upon. This process is essential for the efficient breakdown and absorption of dietary lipids in the small intestine.
Q15: Which of the following sexually transmitted killer diseases is transmitted by a virus?
A. Gonorrhea
B. Syphilis
C. AIDS
D. Chlamydia
AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). Unlike gonorrhea, syphilis, and chlamydia, which are caused by bacteria, AIDS is caused by a viral infection that attacks the immune system, making the body more susceptible to other infections.
Q16: Which part of the alimentary canal carries out the complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats?
A. Stomach
B. Large intestine
C. Small intestine
D. Esophagus
The small intestine is the primary site for the digestion and absorption of nutrients, including carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. Enzymes and bile aid in breaking down these macromolecules into absorbable units that enter the bloodstream.
Q17: The inner lining of the small intestine has numerous finger-like projections that are called:
A. Villi
B. Cilia
C. Rugae
D. Microvilli
Villi are small, finger-like projections in the lining of the small intestine that increase the surface area for absorption of nutrients. Each villus contains blood vessels and lymphatics that transport absorbed nutrients into the body.
Q18: Which of the following circulates around the body and plugs the leaks by helping to clot the blood at the points of injury?
A. Red blood cells
B. White blood cells
C. Platelets
D. Plasma
Platelets, also known as thrombocytes, are cell fragments in the blood that play a crucial role in blood clotting. They gather at the site of injury, adhere to the vessel's wall, and form a plug to prevent excessive bleeding.
Q19: ______ is the liquid part of the blood of which 92% is water and the remaining 8% is proteins, minerals, hormones, enzymes, and so on.
A. Lymph
B. Hemoglobin
C. Plasma
D. Serum
Plasma is the liquid component of blood, comprising about 92% water and 8% dissolved substances such as proteins, electrolytes, hormones, and waste products. It serves as a medium for transporting nutrients, hormones, and waste products throughout the body.
Q20: Involuntary actions such as breathing, salivation, vomiting, and peristalsis are controlled by the:
A. Cerebellum
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Cerebrum
D. Thalamus
The medulla oblongata, a part of the brainstem, regulates involuntary functions such as breathing, heart rate, and digestion. It controls reflex actions and ensures that essential bodily functions occur without conscious effort.
Q21: Normally, in a healthy adult, the initial filtrate in the kidneys is about 180L daily. However, the volume actually excreted is only:
A. 1 litre or 2 litres a day
B. 10 litres a day
C. 50 litres a day
D. 100 litres a day
Although the kidneys filter about 180 liters of blood plasma daily, most of the water and essential nutrients are reabsorbed, resulting in only about 1 to 2 liters of urine being excreted each day. This efficient reabsorption process conserves water and maintains homeostasis.
Q22: During puberty, a woman’s first menstrual flow is known as ______.
A. Ovarian follicle
B. Menarche
C. Menstrual cycle
D. Menopause
Menarche refers to the first menstrual period in a female's life, marking the onset of reproductive capability. It is a significant event during puberty and is influenced by hormonal changes in the body.
Q23: Which part of the human reproductive system helps the embryo get its nutrition from the mother’s blood?
A. Ovary
B. Placenta
C. Uterus
D. Fallopian tube
The placenta is an organ that develops in the uterus during pregnancy. It connects the developing fetus to the uterine wall, allowing nutrient uptake, waste elimination, and gas exchange via the mother's blood supply.
Q24: Name the plant from which the anti-malarial drug Quinine is extracted.
A. Cinchona
B. Digitalis
C. Taxus
D. Artemisia
Quinine is extracted from the bark of the Cinchona tree. It has been used for centuries to treat malaria by killing the parasites that cause the disease. Cinchona bark was a crucial source of quinine before synthetic drugs were developed.
Q25: The system of scientific name in nomenclature of organisms which we use today was introduced by which scientist?
A. Carolus Linnaeus
B. Charles Darwin
C. Gregor Mendel
D. Louis Pasteur
Carolus Linnaeus introduced the binomial nomenclature system, which is the standard method for naming species. Each species is given a two-part Latin name, consisting of the genus name followed by the species identifier, facilitating universal identification and classification.
Q26: In which cell organelle, the first step of cellular respiration, which is the breakdown of glucose, a six-carbon molecule, into a three-carbon molecule called pyruvate takes place?
A. Cytoplasm
B. Nucleus
C. Mitochondria
D. Chloroplast
The first step of cellular respiration, glycolysis, occurs in the cytoplasm. During glycolysis, one molecule of glucose is broken down into two molecules of pyruvate, producing a small amount of ATP and NADH in the process.
Q27: Which excretory products is stored in the old xylem of the plants?
A. Amino acids and proteins
B. Sugars and starches
C. Enzymes and hormones
D. Resins and gums
Resins and gums are stored in the old xylem tissues of plants. These substances serve various functions, including protection against pests and pathogens, and sealing wounds to prevent water loss and infection.
Q28: The gaseous waste product generated during photosynthesis is:
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Hydrogen
During photosynthesis, plants convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen using sunlight. Oxygen is released as a byproduct, which is essential for the respiration of most living organisms.
Q29: Who discovered Penicillin?
A. Louis Pasteur
B. Robert Koch
C. Alexander Fleming
D. Marie Curie
Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin in 1928 when he noticed that a mold (Penicillium notatum) had contaminated his bacterial cultures and killed the surrounding bacteria. This led to the development of the first antibiotic, revolutionizing medicine.
Q30: How was the cell discovered by Robert Hooke?
A. Using a light microscope
B. Through chemical analysis
C. By culturing cells
D. By observing cork
Robert Hooke discovered cells in 1665 by examining a thin slice of cork under a microscope. He observed small, empty chambers which he termed "cells" because they reminded him of the cells of a monastery. This was the first recorded observation of cells.
Q31: ______ chromosomes are found in the nuclei of human cells.
A. 46 single chromosomes
B. 24 pairs of chromosomes
C. 12 pairs of chromosomes
D. 23 pairs of chromosomes
Human cells typically contain 23 pairs of chromosomes, totaling 46 chromosomes. This includes 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes (XX or XY), which determine the individual's sex.
Q32: Which of the following can change sex, indicating that sex is not genetically determined?
A. Dog
B. Elephant
C. Human
D. Snail
Some snails and other organisms have the ability to change sex during their lifetime, a process known as sequential hermaphroditism. This indicates that sex can be influenced by environmental or social factors, rather than being strictly genetically determined.
Q33: Which is the fat-storing tissue in our body?
A. Epithelial Tissue
B. Adipose Tissue
C. Muscle Tissue
D. Connective Tissue
Adipose tissue is the body's main fat-storing tissue. It stores energy in the form of fat, cushions and insulates the body, and plays roles in hormone production and metabolism. Excess adipose tissue can lead to obesity and related health issues.
Q34: Which of the following are connected by Ligament?
A. Skin to muscle
B. Muscle to bone
C. Bone to bone
D. Nerve to muscle
Ligaments are fibrous connective tissues that connect bones to other bones, providing stability and support to joints. Unlike tendons, which connect muscles to bones, ligaments help maintain the integrity of skeletal structures during movement.
Q35: What are the names of the three bones in the middle ear?
A. Hammer, anvil, stirrup
B. Femur, tibia, fibula
C. Radius, ulna, carpal
D. Clavicle, scapula, humerus
The three tiny bones in the middle ear are the hammer (malleus), anvil (incus), and stirrup (stapes). These bones transmit sound vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear, playing a crucial role in hearing.
Q36: Which is the largest digestive gland in humans?
A. Liver
B. Stomach
C. Pancreas
D. Gallbladder
The liver is the largest digestive gland in the human body. It produces bile, which is essential for fat digestion, metabolizes nutrients, detoxifies harmful substances, and performs various other vital functions necessary for overall health.
Q37: Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?
A. Optic
B. Olfactory
C. Vagus
D. Trigeminal
The olfactory nerve (Cranial Nerve I) is responsible for the sense of smell. It transmits sensory information from the nasal cavity to the brain, allowing us to perceive and differentiate various odors.
Q38: Which disease is caused by the deficiency of protein in our body?
A. Rickets
B. Pellagra
C. Kwashiorkor
D. Scurvy
Kwashiorkor is a severe form of malnutrition caused by a deficiency of protein in the diet, despite adequate calorie intake. It is characterized by edema, irritability, an enlarged liver, and skin conditions.
Q39: Which is a substance abundantly available in the sea and administered in a certain deficiency disease?
A. Calcium
B. Iodine
C. Potassium
D. Iron
Iodine is abundantly found in sea water and is administered to prevent iodine deficiency disorders such as goiter. Iodine is essential for the synthesis of thyroid hormones, which regulate metabolism.
Q40: Which isotope is used in the treatment of Goitre?
A. Nitrogen
B. Carbon
C. Iodine
D. Oxygen
Radioactive iodine isotopes, particularly I-131, are used in the treatment of goiter and certain types of thyroid cancer. They are taken up selectively by the thyroid gland, allowing targeted radiation therapy.
Q41: Scurvy, the symptoms of which include bleeding gums, may be prevented by adding ______ to the diet.
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin C
Scurvy is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin C (ascorbic acid), which is essential for the synthesis of collagen. Adding Vitamin C to the diet prevents scurvy and promotes the healing of wounds and maintenance of healthy skin and connective tissues.
Q42: Absence of oxygen as in anaerobic fermentation by yeast cells convert pyruvate into ______.
A. Glucose + Oxygen
B. Water + Carbon dioxide
C. Lactic acid + Energy
D. Ethanol + Carbon dioxide + Energy
In anaerobic fermentation, yeast cells convert pyruvate into ethanol and carbon dioxide, producing a small amount of energy (ATP) in the absence of oxygen. This process is utilized in baking and alcohol production.
Q43: Which of the following pigments has a high affinity for oxygen?
A. Carotene
B. Haemoglobin
C. Melanin
D. Chlorophyll
Hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells that has a high affinity for oxygen. It binds oxygen molecules in the lungs and transports them to tissues throughout the body, releasing oxygen where it is needed for cellular respiration.
Q44: ______ is an acquired global impairment of intellect, memory, and personality but without impairment of consciousness.
A. Dementia
B. Autism
C. Alzheimer's disease
D. Amnesia
Dementia is characterized by a decline in cognitive function, including memory, reasoning, and communication abilities. It is acquired, meaning it develops after birth, and does not typically involve loss of consciousness. Alzheimer's disease is a common type of dementia.
Q45: Which receptors are located on our tongue for taste?
A. Thermoreceptors
B. Gustatory
C. Olfactory
D. Mechanoreceptors
Gustatory receptors are specialized sensory receptors located on the tongue that detect different taste modalities such as sweet, sour, salty, bitter, and umami. These receptors send signals to the brain, allowing us to perceive and differentiate flavors.
Q46: What is the name of the longest bone found in the thigh of a human body?
A. Tibia
B. Femur
C. Fibula
D. Humerus
The femur is the longest and strongest bone in the human body, located in the thigh. It extends from the hip to the knee and plays a crucial role in supporting the body's weight and enabling leg movement.
Q47: Which mineral is required for the formation of the hormone thyroxin?
A. Iron
B. Magnesium
C. Calcium
D. Iodine
Iodine is essential for the synthesis of thyroid hormones, including thyroxin (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3). These hormones regulate metabolism, growth, and development. Iodine deficiency can lead to thyroid gland enlargement (goiter) and hypothyroidism.
Q48: Which hormone is produced by Islets of langerhans to control diabetes mellitus?
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Somatostatin
D. Adrenaline
The Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas produce insulin, a hormone that regulates blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells. In diabetes mellitus, insulin production is impaired (Type 1) or cells become resistant to insulin (Type 2), leading to high blood sugar levels.
Q49: Which gland produces the insulin hormone?
A. Pancreas
B. Thyroid
C. Adrenal
D. Pituitary
The pancreas is the gland responsible for producing insulin, which regulates blood sugar levels. It contains clusters of cells called Islets of Langerhans that secrete insulin and glucagon to maintain glucose homeostasis.
Q50: ______, after growth and development of organs, becomes a fetus.
A. Blastocyst
B. Gamete
C. Embryo
D. Zygote
An embryo refers to the early developmental stage following the zygote and blastocyst stages, lasting until the major organs and structures are formed. After this stage, the embryo is called a fetus until birth.
Q51: Who gave the laws of inheritance?
A. Charles Darwin
B. Thomas Hunt Morgan
C. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
D. Gregor Mendel
Gregor Mendel is known as the father of modern genetics for his pioneering work on the laws of inheritance. Through his experiments with pea plants, Mendel established fundamental principles like the segregation and independent assortment of genes.
Q52: Who is known as the ‘Father of Modern Genetics’?
A. Watson and Crick
B. Barbara McClintock
C. Charles Darwin
D. Gregor Mendel
Gregor Mendel is referred to as the 'Father of Modern Genetics' due to his groundbreaking experiments with pea plants, which laid the foundation for understanding how traits are inherited through generations via genes.
Q53: What is the branch of biology under which tissues are studied?
A. Cytology
B. Histology
C. Physiology
D. Anatomy
Histology is the study of tissues, their structure, and function. It involves examining cells and the extracellular matrix to understand how different tissues contribute to the overall function of organs and organisms.
Q54: What is the normal temperature of a human body?
A. 100.4°F or 38° C
B. 95°F or 35° C
C. 92°F or 33° C
D. 98.6°F or 37° C
The average normal body temperature for a healthy adult is approximately 98.6°F (37°C). Body temperature can vary slightly based on factors like time of day, activity level, and individual differences.
Q55: Which of the following organisms shows a parasitic nutritive strategy?
A. Spinach
B. Moss
C. Sunflower
D. Cuscuta
Cuscuta, also known as dodder, is a parasitic plant that lacks chlorophyll and derives its nutrients by attaching to host plants. It taps into the host's vascular system to absorb water and nutrients necessary for its growth.
Q56: Which substance is present in green leaves to help in the process of photosynthesis?
A. Carotene
B. Hemoglobin
C. Melanin
D. Chlorophyll
Chlorophyll is the green pigment found in the chloroplasts of plant cells. It absorbs light energy, which is used to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen during photosynthesis.
Q57: Green colored plastids containing chlorophyll are called-
A. Chromoplast
B. Amyloplast
C. Chloroplast
D. Leucoplast
Chloroplasts are green plastids that contain chlorophyll, the pigment responsible for capturing light energy in photosynthesis. They are found in plant cells and are essential for converting light energy into chemical energy.
Q58: ______ are present only in plant cells.
A. Nucleus
B. Plastids
C. Ribosomes
D. Mitochondria
Plastids, including chloroplasts, are found exclusively in plant cells and some algae. They are involved in various functions such as photosynthesis (chloroplasts), storage of starch (amyloplasts), and synthesis of fatty acids.
Q59: Complex carbohydrates which make up cell wall in plants are called-
A. Glycogen
B. Chitin
C. Starch
D. Cellulose
Cellulose is a complex carbohydrate that forms the primary component of plant cell walls. It provides structural support, allowing plants to maintain their shape and resist external pressures.
Q60: Which of the following transports products of photosynthesis from the leaves to the other parts of the plant?
A. Cambium
B. Xylem
C. Phloem
D. Pericycle
Phloem is the vascular tissue responsible for transporting the products of photosynthesis, such as sugars, from the leaves to other parts of the plant where they are needed for growth, storage, and energy.
Q61: The concentration of which plant hormone is highest at the top of the plant and decreases as you get closer to the roots?
A. Cytokinin
B. Gibberellin
C. Auxin
D. Ethylene
Auxins are plant hormones that promote cell elongation and are primarily produced in the shoot apex, resulting in a higher concentration at the top of the plant. They play a key role in processes like phototropism and gravitropism.
Q62: Which of the following is the female reproductive part of a flower?
A. Stamen
B. Pistil
C. Petal
D. Sepal
The pistil is the female reproductive organ of a flower, consisting of the stigma, style, and ovary. It is responsible for receiving pollen and facilitating fertilization, leading to the development of seeds.
Q63: Which reproductive parts of the flower contain the germ cells?
A. Petals and sepals
B. Pistils and sepals
C. Ovules and anthers
D. Stamens and pistils
The stamens (male reproductive organs) contain pollen grains, which carry the male germ cells, while the pistils (female reproductive organs) contain ovules, which carry the female germ cells. Together, they facilitate the process of fertilization in flowers.
Q64: ______ present in the center of a flower, forms the female reproductive part.
A. Carpels
B. Petals
C. Filaments
D. Sepals
Carpels are the individual units of the pistil, the female reproductive part of a flower. Each carpel consists of an ovary, style, and stigma, and they contain the ovules where fertilization occurs.
Q65: Who gave the term ‘homo sapiens’?
A. Gregor Mendel
B. C. Linnaeus
C. Aristotle
D. Charles Darwin
Carolus Linnaeus introduced the binomial nomenclature system and coined the term ‘Homo sapiens’ to classify modern humans. This classification places humans within the genus Homo and distinguishes them as the sapiens (wise) species.
Q66: Which is the basic unit of classification of Living Organism?
A. Kingdom
B. Genus
C. Family
D. Species
The species is the fundamental unit of biological classification and taxonomy. It represents a group of individuals that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring. Classification hierarchies include species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, and kingdom.
Q67: The member of which group is usually called a sponge?
A. Echinodermata
B. Cnidaria
C. Porifera
D. Mollusca
Sponges belong to the phylum Porifera. They are simple, multicellular organisms that live attached to surfaces in aquatic environments and are characterized by their porous bodies and ability to filter water for food and oxygen.
Q68: The members of phylum ______ are exclusively free-living marine animals.
A. Chordata
B. Arthropoda
C. Annelida
D. Echinodermata
Members of the phylum Echinodermata, such as starfish, sea urchins, and sea cucumbers, are exclusively free-living marine animals. They are characterized by their radial symmetry, a calcareous endoskeleton, and a water vascular system.
Q69: Some organisms use simple food material obtained from inorganic sources in the form of carbon dioxide and water. What are these organisms known as?
A. Heterotrophs
B. Autotrophs
C. Parasites
D. Saprotrophs
Autotrophs are organisms that produce their own food from inorganic sources like carbon dioxide and water, typically through photosynthesis or chemosynthesis. They form the base of the food chain by providing energy for heterotrophs.
Q70: Energy reserves are found in the form of chemical bonds in living beings, these chemicals of energy are called ______.
A. Lipids
B. Glucose
C. DNA
D. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the primary energy carrier in cells. It stores energy in its high-energy phosphate bonds, which can be released to power various cellular processes when needed.
Q71: A unicellular organism has a definite shape, takes food in at a specific spot, and uses like cilia to move food to that spot. Identify the organism.
A. Yeast
B. Paramaecium
C. Amoeba
D. E. coli
Paramecium is a unicellular ciliate protozoan characterized by a definite shape, cilia used for movement and feeding, and a specific oral groove for ingesting food. It exemplifies a well-structured single-celled organism with specialized functions.
Q72: Which of the following transports food, carbon dioxide, and nitrogenous wastes in dissolved form?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Plasma
C. Lymph
D. Interstitial fluid
Plasma is the liquid component of blood that transports nutrients (food), carbon dioxide, nitrogenous wastes, hormones, and other substances dissolved in it throughout the body. It also plays a role in maintaining blood pressure and volume.
Q73: How many sex chromosomes are there in a normal human being?
A. One
B. Four
C. Three
D. Two (1 pair)
In humans, a normal cell contains two sex chromosomes, forming one pair. Females typically have two X chromosomes (XX), while males have one X and one Y chromosome (XY). These chromosomes determine the biological sex of an individual.
Q74: Which sets of chromosomes lead to the birth of a girl child?
A. YY
B. XY
C. XX
D. X0
Females have two X chromosomes (XX), while males have one X and one Y chromosome (XY). The presence of two X chromosomes leads to the development of female characteristics, resulting in the birth of a girl child.
Q75: What is the number of chromosomes present in the gametes (egg and sperm) of human beings?
A. Four sets of chromosomes
B. Two sets of chromosomes
C. Three sets of chromosomes
D. One set of chromosomes
Human gametes (sperm and egg cells) are haploid, meaning they contain one set of chromosomes (23 chromosomes). Upon fertilization, the gametes combine to form a diploid zygote with two sets of chromosomes (46 chromosomes).
Q76: How many pairs of autosomes does a normal human have?
A. 23
B. 21
C. 22
D. 20
Humans have 22 pairs of autosomes, which are non-sex chromosomes, in addition to one pair of sex chromosomes (XX or XY). Autosomes carry the majority of genetic information responsible for various traits and functions.
Q77: Which of the following organelles are called the Protein Factories of the cell?
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Lysosomes
C. Mitochondria
D. Ribosomes
Ribosomes are the cellular structures responsible for protein synthesis. They translate messenger RNA (mRNA) sequences into amino acid chains, forming proteins essential for various cellular functions. Ribosomes can be free in the cytoplasm or attached to the endoplasmic reticulum.
Q78: ______ are a kind of waste disposal system of the cell. They help to keep the cell clean by digesting any foreign materials as well as worn-out cell organelles.
A. Peroxisomes
B. Lysosomes
C. Vacuoles
D. Endosomes
Lysosomes contain digestive enzymes that break down waste materials, cellular debris, and foreign substances. They play a critical role in maintaining cellular health by recycling damaged organelles and disposing of harmful substances.
Q79: Pyruvate is decomposed in the presence of oxygen in ______.
A. Mitochondria
B. Nucleus
C. Cytoplasm
D. Chloroplast
In the presence of oxygen, pyruvate enters the mitochondria where it undergoes the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle) and oxidative phosphorylation, leading to the production of ATP, carbon dioxide, and water. This process is part of aerobic respiration.
Q80: When the terminal linkage in ATP is broken using water, what is the amount of energy released?
A. 10.5 KJ/mol
B. 20.5 KJ/mol
C. 40.5 KJ/mol
D. 30.5 KJ/mol
The hydrolysis of the terminal phosphate bond in ATP to ADP releases approximately 30.5 kJ/mol of energy. This energy is harnessed by cells to perform various work processes, including muscle contraction, active transport, and biosynthesis.
Q81: In the respiration process, complex organic compounds such as glucose are broken down to provide energy in the form of ______.
A. RNA
B. ATP
C. DNA
D. Glucose
Cellular respiration breaks down glucose and other organic compounds to produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP), the main energy currency of cells. ATP provides the necessary energy for various cellular activities and metabolic processes.
Q82: Asexual reproduction as in the case of amoeba in which the animal reproduces by dividing into two individuals is called:
A. Sporulation
B. Binary fission
C. Fragmentation
D. Budding
Binary fission is a form of asexual reproduction where a single organism divides into two genetically identical daughter organisms. It is common in prokaryotes and some unicellular eukaryotes like amoebas.
Q83: A segment of DNA that provides information to a protein is called the ______ of that protein.
A. Allele
B. Genome
C. Chromosome
D. Gene
A gene is a specific sequence of DNA that contains the instructions for synthesizing a particular protein. Genes determine the inherited traits of an organism by encoding the proteins that perform various functions in the body.
Q84: The process of conversion of sugar into alcohol is known as:
A. Glycolysis
B. Fermentation
C. Respiration
D. Photosynthesis
Fermentation is an anaerobic metabolic process where sugars like glucose are converted into alcohol (ethanol) and carbon dioxide by yeast and certain bacteria. This process is utilized in brewing, winemaking, and baking industries.
Q85: The eyeball is approximately spherical in shape with a diameter of about
A. 1.8 cm
B. 4.0 cm
C. 2.3 cm
D. 3.5 cm
The average diameter of the human eyeball is approximately 2.3 centimeters. Its spherical shape allows for the proper focusing of light onto the retina, enabling clear vision.
Q86: Which cells present in the retina are sensitive to bright and normal light, and give colour sensation?
A. Rods
B. Ganglion cells
C. Cones or cone shaped cells
D. Bipolar cells
Cone cells are photoreceptor cells in the retina responsible for color vision and function best in bright light conditions. They enable the perception of fine detail and color differentiation. Rod cells, on the other hand, are more sensitive to low light but do not detect color.
Q87: ______ is an aperture which controls light passage in the eye.
A. Iris
B. Pupil
C. Cornea
D. Lens
The pupil is the opening in the center of the iris that regulates the amount of light entering the eye. It dilates (enlarges) or constricts (shrinks) in response to light intensity, controlling the light exposure on the retina for optimal vision.
Q88: Which part of the human ear collects sound from the surroundings?
A. Ossicles
B. Cochlea
C. Eardrum
D. Pinna
The pinna, also known as the auricle, is the external part of the ear that collects sound waves from the environment and directs them into the ear canal towards the eardrum for further processing.
Q89: A dialyzer, a machine used to clean a patient’s blood, it is also known as an artificial:
A. Lung
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Heart
A dialyzer is an artificial kidney used in hemodialysis to remove waste products and excess fluids from the blood when the kidneys are unable to perform these functions naturally. It mimics the filtration process of the kidneys.
Q90: Cartilage tissue is absent in which of the following organs of the body?
A. Nose
B. Trachea
C. Kidney
D. Ear
Cartilage is a flexible connective tissue found in various parts of the body, including the ears, nose, and trachea. However, it is absent in the kidneys, which are primarily composed of nephrons and connective tissues without cartilage.
Q91: Which part of the human body is removed from nitrogenous waste like urea and uric acid in the body?
A. Kidney
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Skin
The kidneys filter nitrogenous wastes such as urea and uric acid from the blood, converting them into urine, which is then excreted from the body. This process is essential for maintaining the body's chemical balance and removing toxins.
Q92: In human beings, excretory products in the form of soluble nitrogen compounds are removed by the kidneys.
A. Collecting ducts
B. Glomeruli
C. Bowman's capsule
D. Nephrons
Nephrons are the functional units of the kidneys responsible for filtering blood, removing soluble nitrogen compounds like urea and uric acid, and forming urine. Each nephron consists of a glomerulus and a tubular system for processing the filtrate.
Q93: Which pigment is mainly responsible for the color of our hair, skin and Eyes?
A. Chlorophyll
B. Melanin
C. Hemoglobin
D. Carotene
Melanin is the pigment responsible for the color of hair, skin, and eyes. It provides protection against UV radiation and determines the range of skin and hair colors among individuals. Higher melanin levels result in darker skin and hair.
Q94: ______ organs are those organs which have the same basic structural design and origin but have different functions.
A. Asymmetrical
B. Homologous
C. Analogous
D. Symmetrical
Homologous organs have similar structures and embryonic origins but may perform different functions. For example, the wings of bats and the arms of humans are homologous structures, indicating a common evolutionary ancestry.
Q95: Night blindness is caused by deficiency of ______.
A. Vitamin B12
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin C
Night blindness, or nyctalopia, is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin A. Vitamin A is essential for the formation of rhodopsin, a pigment in the retina that enables vision in low light conditions.
Q96: The Chemical name of Vitamin-B3 is:
A. Niacin
B. Riboflavin
C. Pyridoxine
D. Thiamine
Vitamin B3 is chemically known as niacin. It plays a crucial role in energy metabolism and DNA repair. Niacin deficiency can lead to pellagra, characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia.
Q97: Vitamin B1 is also known as ______.
A. Pantothenic acid
B. Thiamine
C. Riboflavin
D. Niacin
Vitamin B1 is also known as thiamine. It is essential for glucose metabolism and the functioning of the nervous system. Thiamine deficiency can lead to beriberi, affecting the cardiovascular and nervous systems.
Q98: What is the other name of pyridoxine?
A. Vitamin B12
B. Vitamin B6
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin B2
Pyridoxine is another name for Vitamin B6. It is involved in amino acid metabolism, neurotransmitter synthesis, and hemoglobin formation. Deficiency can lead to anemia and neurological issues.
Q99: Ascorbic acid is known as:
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin C
Ascorbic acid is the chemical name for Vitamin C. It is essential for collagen synthesis, antioxidant defense, and immune function. Vitamin C deficiency can result in scurvy, characterized by weakness, anemia, and gum disease.
Q100: The vitamin given for the treatment of common cold is:
A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin B12
Vitamin C is commonly given to help prevent or treat the common cold. It is believed to boost the immune system, although its effectiveness in treating colds is still subject to scientific debate. Nevertheless, Vitamin C plays a role in immune defense against pathogens.
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